p(-)0ENiX
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Europeans is a vague statement when the Europeans themselves are related to us Middle Eastern people as proven by my quote and the probable origin of several haplogroups.
Nobody said the Greeks are Arabs or Middle Eastern. What I am saying, which is also supported by genetic evidence, historical relations, Phoenician settlements and colonies, neolithic movements (how farming came to Greece and Europe from our Middle East region), GEOGRAPHICAL proximity, cultural exchanges, is that many Greeks or a significant part share a similar GENETIC ancestry. Does that make them Arab? No. It just means that they share the same ANCIENT haplogroups that predated ethnic group and linguistic groups by several THOUSANDS years.
Have I made myself clear now?
I already answered this post. Why did you quote it again?
There is no mention of Indo-European people.
No, besides posting genetic evidence. That is right.
Your last statements proofs that you don't know that you are talking about. Y-HAPLOGROUPS CAN ONLY BE INHERITED THROUGH YOUR PATERNAL SIDE. WOMEN ARE COMPLETELY IRRELEVANT HERE.
Check mate.
Are you crazy? Of course I know Y-Hapolgroups are inherited through the paternal side. Just because I did not mention that Arabs married Southern Italian women during the Arab Caliphate does not mean that I do not know that Y haplogroups are inherited paternally.
Japheth is considered the father of Indo-European people by Biblical historians, if you disagree with that then you have no reason to think that Shem's story is true either. They are both individuals referred to in the Bible.
Anyway, I am done with this discussion. You should read up on those sources, all of your questions will be clarified by them.