Pakistan got 27% of land for 25% of muslim population. How is this not equal land? Moreover, Pakistan got most fertile lands in India which actually means Pakistan got more than its share. Even after this, west Pakistan expelled Hindus and Sikhs. So, there is nothing wrong in doing population exchange.
These industries were made by Hindus using their intelligence, business skills and wisdom. How does it belong to pakistan? It was not British creation to be divided proportionally. Muslims did not build industry and hence they did not get any.
The area of Pakistan and Bangladesh combined is 1.1 million square kilometres whereas Indian land is just 3.1 million square kilometres. This was almost in the ratio of muslim-hindu population. When Hindus were expelled from Pakistan, why should Muslims be allowed in India? The industrial base has nothing to do with
There was land more than the proportion of muslim population. Why should there be even more land?
The urban areas were developed by Hindus using their enterprising skills. It was never developed by British. India got more industry solely because hindus were the ones doing business while muslims were interested in going to Madrassa. Secondly, British did not invest in areas of North India. They invested only in areas of trade or politica power. Cities like Mumbai, Karachi, Kolkata, Dhaka etc were developed by British for trade. Areas in northern India, especially in Northern plains were almost completely undeveloped. Areas in Pakistan was developed by British with more importance than Norther India to help fight wars in Afghanistan and Iran while North India was given nothing (except for Delhi which was the capital)