Cossack25A1
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Well, one has to consider that the Philippines was colonized not by 'non-transformative' colonial powers such as the Dutch, or English, who focused their colonialization on fiscal matters. The Philippines was colonized by the Spanish Empire, an Imperial Entity that was very much focused on transforming her territorial possessions abroad comprehensively --- culturally, socially, and politically as well as economically. Take for example all former Spanish colonies -- and you will notice the imprint of Hispanization. In regards to the Philippines, the country was 'transformed' to Spanish entity and the Spanish identity. I suppose your indigenous writings known as 'baybayin' were eradicated from the histories by the Spanish inquisitors and Spanish gobernadorcillos that ruled the whole of your islands with an iron fist for nearly half a millenia.
That's not something you can change, but , i suppose, consider in meta-analysis.
Well the Spaniards saw our culture as either "primitive" or "hostile" when they first arrived here, for the latter due to their experience with the Moors in Spain and that some areas in the Philippines including pre-Hispanic Manila was a Muslim kingdom.
Originally, books that were printed here in the Philippines by the Spaniards were written in I think Spanish or Latin while the other is in baybayin, but as time passes by, the knowledge of baybayin slowly disappears and Spanish language become more common until it nearly disappeared.
One possible reason for the Spanish colonization is to control the trade routes - the Europeans at the time where looking for Moluccas, a way to reach China without going through the Ottomans and possibly establishing the trade route between the Old and New World.