Happy Chinese New Year to you ALL!!!
It doesn’t disprove what I argued though. The Han built the Great Wall which protected them from the other northern nomads. So from the reverse angle, because the Han didn’t want their lands, Mongols and Manchus survived. If Northern Han determined to expand as North as possible at ANY expanses, the Mongols and Manchus would probably have been rooted out long ago.
The Northern Han was and still is the major sub-race in the northern region, alongside with Mongols and Manchus, who mostly have been marginalised/assimilated by the former in the history. As for the Turks, they were chased away by the Northern Han to Central Asia.
Your quote is only a theory based on one research suggesting that Chinese is from SE Asia. It’s not conclusive yet. This mainstream theory (by PC big name geneticists, and adopted by some Korean & Japanese ultra nationalists from Youtube) has a BIG loophole and it can be very well to be another way around that Han Chinese were from the North from the very start - both of which I’ll address later.
No, evidences on the table could suggest either way. BUT, the loophole of the mainstream “South-to-North theory” is that it completely ignores and contradicts the average IQ of the people involved. It remains mainstream because no mainstream scientist dares to mention non-PC truth of IQ, so they don’t need to explain it.
1. it’s an almost commonly held belief that high IQ could only be evolved in the high altitude regions soon after the last Ice Age. High IQ of East Asians (and of NE Europeans, for that matter) was mainly formed during that time. This also insinuates that when “Out of Africa” (if it is true), the route of the ancestors of current NE Asians and NE Europeans was towards the far North, rather than seemingly “easy” Southern route via South Asia and/or SE Asia, because the temperatures there couldn’t explain Cold-Selected IQ level.
2. human IQ has evolved very “slowly” in time, e.g. A peer-reviewed research suggests that the last time that genes of North East Asians subject to natural selection was about 6,500 years ago coinciding with their large scale farming and city-building activities, which were generally deemed giving NE Asian average IQ a further boost.
3. IQ works generally in a way that when tribe A (IQ=105) breeds with tribe B ( IQ=85), the offspring have avg IQ of 95 in time, the mid way; when tribe C (IQ=85) breeds with tribe B, the offspring still have avg IQ of 85, not 105, at least not within a span of thousands of years of drastically evolution under some extraordinary natural selection conditions.
4. In light of 1, 2 and 3, if Han Chinese was originally came to the North from SE Asia ( or saying that SE Asians and/or Southern Chinese “gave birth” to the Northern Chinese) were true, then it couldn’t explain:
A) why SE Asians have lower avg IQ than Northern Chinese,
B) why “Southern”Chinese with almost identical IQ to the Northern Chinese today even if the former were not Cold-Selected at all, since they “originally came from the south”, and
C) how come that the offspring of SE Asians (indigenous, with avg IQ=85) and “Southern Chinese ( assume with IQ max.105 at a time, or closer to 85 according to the half-baked mainstream theory) became 105 (Northern Chinese) all of a sudden?
PC-driven mainstream geneticists and anthropologists can not and dare not explain above obvious contradictions.
Therefore, it suggests that only “North-to-South” migrations ( and invasions as we all know) could be the case. It is also the most logical one that fits into many well-documented history.
As for the facts ( assume they are facts) that in some pockets of far south of China or Southern Tibet there seems to have more O3 concentration, it could well be due to some small waves of early Han Chinese migrations to the regions and later became isolated. They can’t serve as a conclusive evidence to suggest "South-to-north".
Many such cases in history. e.g., actually I even can venture to argue that probably some “Southern Chinese” from some historically isolated mountainous regions of Western Sichuan province or Southern Hunan province are in fact MORE “Northern” than so-called “northern Chinese”, simply because the “Southern Chinese” were originally likely from the north anyway and they married within thus remain “Nothern Chinese” by bloodline, while some of their “northern Chinese”counterparts whom have never lived in the South before are probably even non-Han with certain degrees of possible Manchu, Mongol or Turkish, etc admixtures for one reason or another.
mainstram Anthropologists are wrong, as explained above.
This proves my point that most indigenous ppl of south china had either been rooted out or been chased off the region when they lost wars to the Han in ancient times, the similar happened to most northern China nomads.
I still can’t see any conclusive evidence why “unidirectional diffusion” and why must be “from Southeast Asia into East Asia”. Actually as I explained earlier, both logic and IQ seem to indicate that the other way around is much more likely the case, although it didn’t root out the possibility that some Han Chinese mated with indigenous women AFTER they migrated to the Southern China and SE Asia.
Don't fall for those graphs, Veritas. Any graph is based on data. If those original data source is wrong, the graphs and analysis can be very misleading. Even some Chinese scholar-sourced data could be badly gathered at a time.
Fan Bingbing was a newbie actress at that time.
