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No Nobels, We're Muslim

Develepero argues that it is bad governance - and offer the example of the state of education in Pakistan as an example and explanation - Yet, does this mean that Muslims have suffered from bad governance since the 13th century?????

Except for brief interludes, for most of the period, yes.

You give the example of the Renaissance, but the renaissance only flourished once European city states reached a certain level of stability and the rulers patronized the arts and sciences. Same goes for every single civilization in history that made scientific contributions.

Basically, you have started out with a premise that there is a correlation between religion and scientific progress. The empirical evidence, historically or contemporarily, does not support that claim. There is a far greater correlation with stable governance than with religion.
 
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Muse,

I think we are both saying the same thing that Islam is not incompatible with science and progress. Islam's early history is evidence enough.


Our only difference is that you feel the blame for the current situation lies with Islamic scholars who have corrupted the intellectual atmosphere, whereas I feel the failure lies with civil governance. The human need for self-realization will eventually trump any limiting ideology.
 
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Except for brief interludes, for most of the period, yes.

You give the example of the Renaissance, but the renaissance only flourished once European city states reached a certain level of stability and the rulers patronized the arts and sciences. Same goes for every single civilization in history that made scientific contributions.

Basically, you have started out with a premise that there is a correlation between religion and scientific progress. The empirical evidence, historically or contemporarily, does not support that claim.
There is a far greater correlation with stable governance than with religion.

Excellent - But don't just claim this, make the argument that historical evidence does not support the idea that there is a correlation between religion and scientific progress ----but then you will have to explain the scientific progress, the expansion of knowledge and innovation from the advent of Islam to the 13 century - you will also explain the relationship between the expansion of knowledge and the reaction of the Catholic Church, and the relationship to the Reformation.

We await this argument - we have promised every opportunity, every consideration, if only our friends will formulate an argument to support their position. And we have gone one step further, we have even told you where our defense will come from, that is to say we have even given you a hand up to allow you to refute with argument. But we will offer you even more ammunition to use against us as you formulate your arguments - our defense will feature Epistemology as central.

Now we have given you every possible advantage and invite you to formulate an argument that will persuade.
 
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You give the example of the Renaissance, but the renaissance only flourished once European city states reached a certain level of stability and the rulers patronized the arts and sciences. Same goes for every single civilization in history that made scientific contributions.

I guess it is generally agreed that Renaissance happened due to the weakening of the Church's power to control the mind of people.

The Church did all it could to stop scientific advance for long.
 
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More Interesting responses - Hossein says:



In other words, the period from the advent of Islam to the 13 century when Islam and Muslims led in science and innovation, had nothing to do with Islam?? Hiding behind the skirts of "anti-Islam" will not suffice. We have higher expectations from you.

Develepero argues that it is bad governance - and offer the example of the state of education in Pakistan as an example and explanation - Yet, does this mean that Muslims have suffered from bad governance since the 13th century?????

PakShah says :



Yes, How does this explain, Why and how Muslims lost their lead??

Sandy offers an explanation, again, outwardly focused, that is to say Colonialism and what he says is the "urge for Development" and says:



What is this "urge for Development"? If there is such an urge, and it was present from the advent of Islam to the 13 century, what happened to this urge after the 13 century and why?

See in your notion of "urge for development", there is a more interesting ideas, lets explore it -- would you think we may use the notion of "progress" as a synonym for "urge for development? - So what happened to this ideas after the 13 century among Muslims? What killed this idea? What made the intellectual environment in Muslims lands inhospitable to this idea that it lost legitimacy and migrated to more hospitable areas, to be rediscovered in Europe and ignite the Renaissance? What does Renaissance mean anyway??

Friends, in the article "Responsibility of Muslim Intellectuals" (see post number 22) Farish Noor and Abdolkarim speak of "Epistemological" divergence when discussing Islam and modernity - What is this "Epistemology"?? What is the relationship between Epistemology and the creation of knowledge or the lack of creation of knowledge (Sandy, this is a huge ISHARA, I hope you will pick this up and run with it) What is the relationship between the creation of knowledge or lack thereof, and the idea of progress or "urge for development" and lack thereof??


cool,

"Progress" of a society needs be gaged by its political success and its power projection. If we look into historic times farther than the pre industrial revolution we will be stuck in discussion which will involve history lesson which will not translate into understanding the reason for the way things are now in this day and age.

I understand the divergence of religious mysticism from rational knowledge, can be claimed as molding factor of general populous into mentally impotency in forward thinking might be the undercurrent of this discussion, but realistically speaking every innovator has been a heretic in his understanding of religion (even jesus christ for that matter).

There seems to be a couple of centuries lost especially in Islamic empire, there a rot in the progressive thinking of islamic culture for which i will not blame the religion. This non performing years are gaged with western perspective, whereas the reason might be political instability and infighting caused social turmoil and economic struggle. In the same era islamic empires were just outperformed by technological breakthroughs in the europe.

Another reason was though there was political turmoil in islamic empires, the system didn't starve its population, by no means it was anywhere comparable to the pathetic conditions of the europe where the streets were covered with poverty brought upon by years of infighting.

If persian kingdom would have ruled a major chunk of area without defeat, would have been able to project its power during colonization and withstand the world war II, the subsequent nation would be among the pioneers in technology and be a leading power. Same goes for the mughals or any big powers of that time. European thrones survived successfully the colonization and they owned the industrial age. Muslim countries didn't have a stake in the industrial revolution because it didn't have the affluence.


Once the east was found, and trade flourished years of curbed aspirations of the europeans was released with tremendious fervor which just outperformed other kingdoms of that time. this 16-17th century changed the dynamics of power in the modern world for ever and since then technology has been a western/white forte whereas rest of the world has been divided/enslaved and undemined sucessfully to maintain the power equation

On a personal observation, progress of any society follows hook's law for rupture in stress strain curve ... it grows for a while , swells while reaching the yeild point and then there is some cataclysmic event that changes it for ever...
 
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Sandy

I am again going to recommend to you to read post #22 -- it really is super important - it has what you are looking for - it has the explanation you are looking for --- always first and last, look at ideas - it is these that all action is the physical manifestation of.


We have tried to explain this to our friend and forum member Develepero, as well, and if he would read for comprehension, he would see that this suggestion that there is no historical correlation between religion and scientific progress and lack thereof, is so obviously, so patently unsupportable -- What is Epistemology??????????

What explains the vibrancy of islam and scientific discovery and innovation from the advent of islam to the 13 century?? What then changed? WHY? what is the relationship of this change to epistemology ???

Please pick up on this and create an argument for or against the contention -- but you can only do so after reading post 22 and understanding and answering our questions in the bolded part.

---------- Post added at 12:43 PM ---------- Previous post was at 12:42 PM ----------

Sandy

I am again going to recommend to you to read post #22 -- it really is super important - it has what you are looking for - it has the explanation you are looking for --- always first and last, look at ideas - it is these that all action is the physical manifestation of.


We have tried to explain this to our friend and forum member Develepero, as well, and if he would read for comprehension, he would see that this suggestion that there is no historical correlation between religion and scientific progress and lack thereof, is so obviously, so patently unsupportable -- What is Epistemology??????????

What explains the vibrancy of islam and scientific discovery and innovation from the advent of islam to the 13 century?? What then changed? WHY? what is the relationship of this change to epistemology ???

Please pick up on this and create an argument for or against the contention -- but you can only do so after reading post 22 and understanding and answering our questions in the bolded part.
 
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but realistically speaking every innovator has been a heretic in his understanding of religion
Sandy


But this was not the case from the advent of Islam till the 13 century - what changed? After all, ALL the great scientists and philosophers were products of Madares - today Madares produce imbeciles, whereas in the period from the advent of islam till the 13 century, they produced geniuses - what changed??? What idea changd? How did innovator and free thinkers become heretics?

Too many of us wish to claim this legacy but wish to deny any connection between religious propositions and the lack of expansion of knowledge but do want to claim a connection between religious propositions and the expansion of knowledge from the period from the advent of Islam till the 13 century
 
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I guess it is generally agreed that Renaissance happened due to the weakening of the Church's power to control the mind of people.

Copernicus and Galileo would disagree.

See below for more.

Excellent - But don't just claim this, make the argument that historical evidence does not support the idea that there is a correlation between religion and scientific progress ----but then you will have to explain the scientific progress, the expansion of knowledge and innovation from the advent of Islam to the 13 century - you will also explain the relationship between the expansion of knowledge and the reaction of the Catholic Church, and the relationship to the Reformation.

We await this argument - we have promised every opportunity, every consideration, if only our friends will formulate an argument to support their position. And we have gone one step further, we have even told you where our defense will come from, that is to say we have even given you a hand up to allow you to refute with argument. But we will offer you even more ammunition to use against us as you formulate your arguments - our defense will feature Epistemology as central.

Now we have given you every possible advantage and invite you to formulate an argument that will persuade.

Actually, since you are making the claim that Muslim countries' lack of progress is due to intellectual corruption rather than bad governance, it is you who needs to provide evidence to back up that assertion. Simply making the assertion is not enough.

For my part -- that the real culprit is governence -- the evidence is substantial. The correlation with governance is strong across the board. We have both a positive correlation where stable governance leads to scientific progress -- across all historical civilizations -- as well as negative correlation that shows these civilizations stop being productive when mired in internal conflicts.

When one explanation -- governance -- cover all cases, including Muslim and non-Muslim lands, now and in the past, then logically there is no basis to bring in additional factors like intellectual corruption. Certainly, they may be mitigating or exacerbating factors, but it is a tough call to make them a primary factor.

As for the Reformation, it was mainly a political battle between the Catholic Church and the local rulers for control of their domains. When the rulers won and regained control, i.e. could provide unchallenged, stable governance, the Renaissance flourished. As I noted above, the Church was still influential and opposed to scientific inquiry even in Galileo's days, but it had been tamed to some extent by the rulers.
 
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Copernicus and Galileo would disagree.

Quite the contrary.

They were persecuted by the Church for their scientific inquiry. Why should they disagree!

The reduction in Church's power was directly correlated to the increase in the power of Science.

Why the power of the Church reduced is a separate issue.
 
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Dont worry guys God willing, may be by next year Bangladesh will get Nobel in Physics if their scientists manage to prove Einstein's theory wrong or invalid or modify his theory. that will be a big bigg BIG achievement in recent years.
 
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Muslim countries have bad government because people simply are incapable of electing a decent government. Why blame government when it is nothing more than "will" of people, even the dictatorial ones.

---------- Post added at 09:26 AM ---------- Previous post was at 09:25 AM ----------

Actually, since you are making the claim that Muslim countries' lack of progress is due to intellectual corruption rather than bad governance, it is you who needs to provide evidence to back up that assertion. Simply making the assertion is not enough.

Good governance doesn't come out of thin air, as you believe. Government reflects the mindset of general populace. Precisely what Muse is trying to say.
 
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Quite the contrary.

They were persecuted by the Church for their scientific inquiry. Why should they disagree!

The reduction in Church's power was directly correlated to the increase in the power of Science.

Why the power of the Church reduced is a separate issue.

You missed the point entirely. Read my post again.

The Church was intolerant before and during Galileo's time, but the renaissance happened anyway because stable governance was present.

Muslim countries have bad government because people simply are incapable of electing a decent government. Why blame government when it is nothing more than "will" of people, even the dictatorial ones.

---------- Post added at 09:26 AM ---------- Previous post was at 09:25 AM ----------



Good governance doesn't come out of thin air, as you believe. Government reflects the mindset of general populace. Precisely what Muse is trying to say.

Where did I say that it comes 'out of thin air'? What is your evidence that there is any correlation between religion and governance? What is the excuse for bad governance in south America or Africa?

It would be useful if you post something sensible instead of just posting knee-jerk anti-Muslim rants.
 
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Develepero

Our case is already made in our lead and following articles - you disagree with their contention and now it's our responsibility to respond to your claims??

And your "claims" are based on unsupportable contentions -- see, you would have to show that there was good governance from the advent of islam to the 13th century and that there was bad governance after, and that society was stable from the advent of Islam till the 13 century and unstable ever since - we wish you good luck in that difficult formulation. But I don't think you have grasped what the contentions in this thread are, that is why you are having difficulty with it

Your understanding of Renaissance, limited to a shallow notion of art, is regrettable - indeed, as is the understanding demonstrated of the ideas that led to the loss of the Church's religious claims about the nature of reality and how these then led to the Reformation.

But since it is clear to me, that your argument is not one that you can place on firm foundations - allow me to better explain the contentions in this thread and their relationship to the idea of epistemology:


1, From the advent of Islam to till the 13 century, the notion of the expansion of knowledge and innovation was a notion rooted among those who were trained in religious institutions - ALL the scholars were Madares trained. If you argue that this had nothing to with Islam, you would be in the position of denying thagt Madaress and the training imparted by them had nothing to do with islam - indeed you may as well argue that Islam has no relationship with Muslims. And if you argue that the events after the 13 century has nothing to do with islam, you would be in the same position - that is to say, if you choose either of those positions, you paint yourself in a corner.

2. With the defeat of the Mutazzalite and as a reaction to them, in particular with the help of Al-Ghazali and his attacks on reason and rational discourses, the idea of expansion of knowledge fell into disrepute. What's the proof, you ask? The obvious lack of expansion of knowledge and innovation - what better proof??

So what explains why we are still so backward? The answer lies in Epistemology - what is this? It is the study of KNOWLEDGE, the nature of knowledge, How do we know what we know and how do we justify it (we asked our readers to pay attention to post 22, Abdol Karim is a philosopher of Science (a branch of study in which Epistemology is a central pole)

Our religious leaders even today are anti-science - they are anti innovation, they are anti the expansion of knowledge - WHY is this the case? for several reasons, but first because that they are persuaded by their training that their position is right - by and large Muslim populations do not value the idea of the expansion of knowledge - note that in post 22 Abdol karim uses the term "Speculative knowledge" as a synonym for science - why? what can we learn from this about what he thinks the nature of knowledge is and what the nature of science and the enterprise to expand knowledge, is??? And what is the stand of religious authorities with regard to "speculation"????


You have suggested that we look to education as a explanation -- again, you would be in the same problem as before, you would have ot explain why education succeeded from the advent of islam till the 13 century but failed afterwards and of course you would have to explain WHY

The explanation we have offered, that is to say to look at epistemology, can help your argument - you will then argue that the CONTENT of education was such that the expansion of knowledge, the asking of why and how, the speculation, the leaps of imagination, were valued by religious authorities, that reason and rational thought was valued and that after the rejection of and in reaction to the Mutazzalite excesses, such enterprises were strongly discouraged -- in other words, you would be seeking refuge in our position.
 
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Develepero

Our case is already made in our lead and following articles - you disagree with their contention and now it's our responsibility to respond to your claims??

Uh, no!

Merely stating a proposition, hoever many times, is not the same as proving it.

In fact your argument is a circular one: you start out with the premise that Islam is responsible for the failure of Muslim societies; then you look at Muslim societies and say, since they have failed, the reason must be Islam.

What this circular argument ignores is the fact that Muslim societies also have something else in common: bad governance. And other societies across time and space with bad governance have the same symptoms. Hence, the logical culprit is bad governance rather than your illogical premise.

And your "claims" are based on unsupportable contentions -- see, you would have to show that there was good governance from the advent of islam to the 13th century and that there was bad governance after, and that society was stable from the advent of Islam till the 13 century and unstable ever since - we wish you good luck in that difficult formulation. But I don't think you have grasped what the contentions in this thread are, that is why you are having difficulty with it

My 'claim' is that progress is correlated primarily to governance. That claim is supported by history: the history of India, Persia, China, Egypt, Greece, Europe, Middle East, etc., etc.

You, on the other hand, insist on attributing it to one particular factor, which surely plays a part, but is hardly the primary cause. As I said above, when one explanation suffices for other cultures across time and space, then it is unscientific to bring in extraneous factors for Muslims.

Your understanding of Renaissance, limited to a shallow notion of art, is regrettable - indeed, as is the understanding demonstrated of the ideas that led to the loss of the Church's religious claims about the nature of reality and how these then led to the Reformation.

Nonsense. I specifically wrote about the scientific and political factors involved. Unfortunately, you seem to confuse the Ranaissance with the Reformation, which makes it hard to discuss the subject.

My point was that the Catholic Church did not magically learn to behave itself, but was made increasingly irrelevant because of stable governance when people started focussing on the material world and were less inclined to listen to the Church.

But since it is clear to me, that your argument is not one that you can place on firm foundations - allow me to better explain the contentions in this thread and their relationship to the idea of epistemology:


1, From the advent of Islam to till the 13 century, the notion of the expansion of knowledge and innovation was a notion rooted among those who were trained in religious institutions - ALL the scholars were Madares trained. If you argue that this had nothing to with Islam, you would be in the position of denying thagt Madaress and the training imparted by them had nothing to do with islam - indeed you may as well argue that Islam has no relationship with Muslims. And if you argue that the events after the 13 century has nothing to do with islam, you would be in the same position - that is to say, if you choose either of those positions, you paint yourself in a corner.

2. With the defeat of the Mutazzalite and as a reaction to them, in particular with the help of Al-Ghazali and his attacks on reason and rational discourses, the idea of expansion of knowledge fell into disrepute. What's the proof, you ask? The obvious lack of expansion of knowledge and innovation - what better proof??

My dear muse, I don't care if they were educated in the ashrams of Calcutta. The whole point, which you assiduously avoid, is that Muslim scientists and artists flourished once the Caliphates were established, i.e. -- wait for it -- stable governance. And they faded from history once the Caliphates collapsed.

Our religious leaders even today are anti-science - they are anti innovation, they are anti the expansion of knowledge - WHY is this the case? for several reasons, but first because that they are persuaded by their training that their position is right - by and large Muslim populations do not value the idea of the expansion of knowledge - note that in post 22 Abdol karim uses the term "Speculative knowledge" as a synonym for science - why? what can we learn from this about what he thinks the nature of knowledge is and what the nature of science and the enterprise to expand knowledge, is??? And what is the stand of religious authorities with regard to "speculation"????

Again, I have to repeat what I wrote. There will always be a spectrum of religious thought. Religiosity thrives in times of bad governance. When times are good, people are more interested in this world than the afterworld, and religious scholars become less relevant.

So, effectively, it doesn't matter what Islamic scholars think -- or rather, it matters only when people don't have enough to eat and these scholars get people's attention.

You have suggested that we look to education as a explanation -- again, you would be in the same problem as before, you would have ot explain why education succeeded from the advent of islam till the 13 century but failed afterwards and of course you would have to explain WHY

Already explained. The standard of education depends on the general level of governance.

Good stable governance => good education => progress.

And the opposite is also true.

The explanation we have offered, that is to say to look at epistemology, can help your argument - you will then argue that the CONTENT of education was such that the expansion of knowledge, the asking of why and how, the speculation, the leaps of imagination, were valued by religious authorities, that reason and rational thought was valued and that after the rejection of and in reaction to the Mutazzalite excesses, such enterprises were strongly discouraged -- in other words, you would be seeking refuge in our position.

The CONTENT of science education is fairly standard across the world. Yet the results vary. Again, correlated with -- you guessed it!
 
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I guess we'll have too wait for the return of the caliphs - So we no longer need to value the idea of expansion of knowledge, and we no longer have to be rid of religious propositions that inhibit speculative knowledge - Caliphs will solve it all - idiot notions for imbeciles? Not so fast, lets examine and see if we can refine our positions

So is the notion that governance has nothing to do with the expansion of knowledge? On the contrary, it does = So what's the problem with the idea offered that we look at governance as a explanation --because it will always offer an incomplete explanation for OUR predicament. It is being offered that the period from the advent of islam to the 13 century was a period of good governance -- is this factual??

Wait, lets try and be clear - the period from the advent of Islam to the 13 century encompassed an empire the Caliph was essentially a king even emperor - Was this really a period of what is called good governance? How will we define "good governance" in this period? In other words, to build our case how do we recognize what we will offer as evidence of good governance in an empire? or evidence of bad governance?
 
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