The onus to make a clearer statement lies on Iqbal. It is not a workable excuse that to understand the meaning of those words one should first study or understand the philosophy of the speaker. The grammar of any language in itself is a set of strict rules that do not allow different interpretations of same sentence. So while I tend to think that Iqbal did not mean the way I interpreted the words (which I did very correctly, per the language), I do question his statement because his being a poet he should have known very well that unless he makes a perfectly clear statement, it can, and should, always be interpreted in different ways as well.
For example, had it not been Iqbal, but some average unknown guy, (say me) to speak those exact words, then you and everyone else would come out with the same counter argument that I did today.
So, for the sake of brevity, all I will say is that Iqbal should have made his statement much clearer than what you quoted.