Why do most people on Pakistani news channels call India as "Hindustan"?

[letsrock]

Sanskrit was the language of the masses when Rigveda was written - we call that Vedic Sanskrit much like Quranic Arabic - no one speaks it exactly too. Sanskrit literature was written by Europeans? A big LOL. @Joe Shearer

yes a lot of it was indeed written by european colonists mostly missonaries to convert people.

Language of the masses ? yea right - what is your source? the television series of "Chanakya" ?

Arabic is arabic - quranic or not. There is no sanskrit anyone speaks or has any interest in - even in a country of 1.3 billion. Understand it first.

ONe example is yajurveda written by french missionary :

"A manuscript called Ezourvedam was given to Voltaire in 1760 by Louis-Laurent de Federbe, Chevalier de Maudave.[5] The text was in French, and said to be[by whom?] a French translation of a Sanskrit original.[5] Voltaire was enthusiastic about the work, had it copied, and brought it to the attention of others.[5] It was first published in 1778[4] (Voltaire died that same year). The genuineness of the Ezourvedam was first questioned in 1782; these doubts were confirmed in 1822.[4] Rather than an original Sanskrit work, the Ezourvedam turned out to be a French text, written by French Jesuits, and meant to be translated into Sanskrit.[4]"

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ezourvedam ... there were many such nonsenses then

 

[Naofumi]

yes a lot of it was indeed written by european colonists mostly missonaries to convert people.

Language of the masses ? yea right - what is your source? the television series of "Chanakya" ?

Arabic is arabic - quranic or not. There is no sanskrit anyone speaks or has any interest in - even in a country of 1.3 billion. Understand it first.

ONe example is yajurveda written by french missionary :

"A manuscript called Ezourvedam was given to Voltaire in 1760 by Louis-Laurent de Federbe, Chevalier de Maudave.[5] The text was in French, and said to be[by whom?] a French translation of a Sanskrit original.[5] Voltaire was enthusiastic about the work, had it copied, and brought it to the attention of others.[5] It was first published in 1778[4] (Voltaire died that same year). The genuineness of the Ezourvedam was first questioned in 1782; these doubts were confirmed in 1822.[4] Rather than an original Sanskrit work, the Ezourvedam turned out to be a French text, written by French Jesuits, and meant to be translated into Sanskrit.[4]"

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ezourvedam ... there were many such nonsenses then

Who called it Sanskrit literature?

 

[MM_Haider]

It has everything to do with the origins of Pakistan. You need to read it first. Please don't talk of misinformation until you have suitably read up on the basics.

You are absolutely wrong.. and this really casts doubts on your knowledge of history. To track origins of Pakistan you need to read history from neutral (or credible) sources.

 

[letsrock]

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Who called it Sanskrit literature?

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Who called it Sanskrit literature?

Thats just a conjecture - Indo Aryans etc. No SOLID evidence . Also no Real interest in that language. Eventually those aryan theories led to hitler. But indians worship the aryan theory (they only contest its origins claiming it to be indian origin) - they worship because it gives them some sort of proximity to europeans and some respect associated with it. NO matter that cow belt indians actually are poorer than sub saharan arifcans.

That particular sanskrit literature was caught to be forgery but plenty others were not caught.

 

[Naofumi]

Thats just a conjecture - Indo Aryans etc. No SOLID evidence . Also no Real interest in that language. Eventually those aryan theories led to hitler. But indians worship the aryan theory (they only contest its origins claiming it to be indian origin) - they worship because it gives them some sort of proximity to europeans and some respect associated with it. NO matter that cow belt indians actually are poorer than sub saharan arifcans.

You are saying Aryan migration theory is not true, right?

 

[Liquidmetal]

Because calling it Shithole might upset a few snowflakes across the border, and Pakistanis if anything are very polite even to Hindustan and it's inhabitants.

 

[letsrock]

See below what really happened then. Vedas "pure fantasy" were discovered from south indian brahmin - how did it create kashmiri and sindhi ?

 

[Naofumi]

See below what really happened then. Vedas "pure fantasy" were discovered from south indian brahmin - how did it create kashmiri and sindhi ?

Because you didn't needed Sanskrit when it had already evolved to Prakrit, genius.

And De Nobili - a missionary, how he can be counted as an academic source? ​

 

[MM_Haider]

Land records at the original times, but not later; everything was converted to English. Also not court judgements, and not acts of government. So what is left?

You still haven't told me about your own credentials.

Lingua Franca still remained Urdu which triggered upper caste Hindu terrorists to start agitation against it.. which eventually culminated at Pakistan. Converting everything in English wasn't the solution. In Haryana the land records were recorded in Urdu as late as 2014..
My credentials are irrelevant as long as I am exposing you. Have a nice evening!

 

[letsrock]

Because you didn't needed Sanskrit when it had already evolved to Prakrit, genius.

Did you read what i posted ? vedas was essentially gibberish books some non-descript telugu brahmin tossed to a european missonary who was pestering him for them. He called it vedas and everybody started running with them. thats who these myths were made.

 

[Hakikat ve Hikmet]

As far as the Muslims are concerned, the current Hindustan instantly produces the following images in the mind and a drop of heart-wrenching tears in the eyes:

• Ghettos where births are cursed, and deaths are celebrated
• A life of 24/7 extreme humiliation under the Mushrikin, and terrible fear for being lynched, raped, maimed, killed, burnt etc. under 100% official patronage
• Not a minutest trace of Sherafet, Namus, Izzet etc. left
• Zero opportunities for scaling up in the socio-economic ladder
• As for the female folks, the least said the better
• etc.

Allah Kahr etsin...

 

[Naofumi]

Did you read what i posted ? vedas was essentially gibberish books some non-descript telugu brahmin tossed to a european missonary who was pestering him for them. He called it vedas and everybody started running with them. thats who these myths were made.

A 17th century missionary who wanted to convert Hindus - is that an academic source?

 

[Joe Shearer]

His narrative excludes Muhajirs explicitly - they're the turd of the Ganga according to him. Also, I don't see how Pashtun and Baloch can be integrated in his Indus valley nationalism.

So when he wishes to exclude, he is actually excluding the exclusionaries.

Let me explain.

There are those who explain the raison d'etre of Pakistan through religion. That is how the Muhajir, according to him, claim a proprietary right to Pakistan; that is why Urdu was imposed on the new state, rather than Persian (remember that their national anthem is in Persian). So he is particular about excluding Muhajir, unless they accept that they are an additional element in the Indus-centric Pakistan.

There are those who explain the raison d'etre of Pakistan by denying their entire pre-Islamic history. That is how the racists, who claim to be exclusively Turanian/Turkish, Iranian or Arab, claim a proprietary right to Pakistan; that is why to this school of thought there is an automatic rejection of everything before bin Qasim. So he is particular about excluding these supposed blue-blooded descendants of the steppe (or the desert).

The whole exercise is an attempt to promote the organic unity of the people of the Indus.

This is quite different from the exclusivity of the RSS. They want to exclude a section of the population because that section has a different religion, and because the RSS has determined and satisfied itself that there is scientific reason to exclude those following a different religious authority.

He didn't said yes too.

They are already but under an union.

 

[MM_Haider]

Not funny.

The very first piece of evidence that you were asked to go through was promptly swept aside, so clearly there is no point in submitting evidence to you. Anything that does not satisfy your predetermined conclusion is to be ignored. That is why I am compelled to ask where you are coming from: clearly not from any academic background, and clearly without the ability to marshal evidence and present it, other than to copy and paste stuff.

you never presented any evidence so far other than rants. you expounded that Urdu was Lingua Franca only in Punjab which was proven wrong. If you are so academic apologise first for spreading misinformation and then we can talk further. You can lie to your teeth and claim to be some sort of historian. bring evidence and data to back you claims instead of resorting to personal credentials rant.

 

[letsrock]

A 17th century missionary who wanted to convert Hindus - is that an academic source?

Every little thing about indian religion other than popular myths or Ram or krishna was presented back to indians by europeans. Ask yourself how many common indian households even have elementary knowledge of vedas - even brahmins. its zero, zulch. Indians did not even have a concept of history - that was a european concept.

Almost every thing you people quote such as german max mueller who apparently translated vedas without moving his bum from germany was a missonary after all. Most historians were missonary.

So called sanskrit was largely discovered in south india. half made up half some local vocab.