Indischer
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My question is isn't lingual studies empirical?
Obviously, the language utilized for comparison will have a few fixed markers around which the timelines will be fixed. Thus the results will be fairly accurate. The timespan estimates might differ by a few centuries in case of archaic language analysis, but that's to be expected. Language studies are a subjective field.
LOL is it this hard to understand? Did the so called 'lingual study of RigVedic Sanskrit' state that there was no Hinduism before RigVeda or religions followed in Dwarka or IVC were not Hinduism?
The burden of proof lies with the claimant dude. With the proof available so far, that's about as far as Hinduism gets. What about your pre-vedic "established chain"? It might throw up a few proofs that ancient Dwarkans were Hindus