With political campaign Aman Ki Asha and too many Indian contents heavily promoted in Pakistan over the years, Pakistan was beginning to doubt itself as existence of Pakistan. Now the intolerant stint couldn't have come at better time for Pakistan. But not for Indian Muslims right now unfortunately.
Why Pakistan became a nation separated from India? A recent intolerant society should give you some clues, and let this be shown all over Pakistan over and over again like Aman Ki Asha had been for years.
I was replying to a coment
Pakistans population has been increasing specially among muslims since 1947. It doesnt mean there are less minorities but just that their percentage has gone down. Increase in population in muslim sphere is mostly due to religion as Muslims believe that every person who comes to this world bing his own share with him hence there is popultion control concept. People may disagree but trend of muslim populations growing at fast pace is same across the globe.
The population of minority didn't decrease, and if anything, they have increased. The reason the ratio of minority was higher compared to today is because that factor included Bangladesh which had more than 5% minority and maybe more whereas it was few in Pakistan. If you take Bangladesh out, it would seem like their percentage of minority population had decreased.
23%... i had already posted the link
no the figure was after independence. and pls read the links i posted earler about the force conversion, execution and kidnapping of hindu girls in pakistan. and that is the reason why the 20% of minorities came to only 1%
Wrong. Either you don't know the truth or you are deliberately leaving important information out.
With Former East Pakistan aka Bangladesh, the ratio of minority seemed higher back then. Without Bangladesh today while doing comparison analysis with past Pakistan plus Bangladesh, it may seem like the ratio of minority population decreased, but it hasn't. Without former East Pakistan aka Bangladesh from 1947 to present, minority population had increased tenfold.
With Pakistan plus Bangladesh from 1947 to the present Pakistan without Bangladesh, it is not rocket science to manipulate the stats, and it is also not coincidence why only Indians manipulated this status in the past and still do [this thread].
Past Pakistan 47' without Bangladesh had closer 1%, and last time i heard Pakistan 01' had 5% and right now, up to 10% and maybe more.
your post shows just copy paste instincts without proper analysis. Let me ask you this question:
