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Russia-Ukraine War - News and Developments PART 2

a neutral country can never be attacked? You live in parallel universe. History is full of invasions of neutral countries. War happening with different reasons, but never with such thing as political neutrality.
It is even worse, he said ”not neutral”.
Based on that, the US could not bomb Germany in WWII, since they were certainly ”not neutral”.

no article2 to 5 don't talk about selling weapon and nobody ever proved Iran sold weapon to Russia after the start of war

well then provide evidence of shipment after the start of war and i mean evidence not somebody talk .
also for the record production date after the start of the war was the best evidence

and no where in article 2 to 4 it stated anything about sale of weapon . now if Iran recruited force for Russia or allowed Russia to stage attack on Ukraine or transport its force throw Iran into Ukraine or gave a base to Russia to attack Ukraine

you mean China or USA ? seriously doubt that
What part if this do you not understand?

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Ukraine lost lost tens of thousands of elite soldiers and people with a future to wagner which had a significant proportion of convicts who had no future, Ukraine got outplayed by Putin.

Off to war


Did they get outplayed? The Russian army almost certainly lost far more elite soldiers than Ukraine.

The very fact that Putin has had to rely on Wagner mercs, the only competent military force Russia has is humiliating enough as it is. The Russian Army and special forces have been nearly useless.
 
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depends on who is gonna cry the damage can be fixed with 1mx 50cm of metal mesh and 1 kg of cement and 10min work of a worker
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and by the way the UAV used is the same Lebanon army captured 3 years ago from Israel. so you can talk about Ukraine revenge or this or that , we knew who is actually behind this failure
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and won't waste our time on some attention seeking retards who happen to be a certain comedian advisor
 
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Neither Neutral nor Party to the Conflict?​

On the Legal Assessment of Arms Supplies to Ukraine​

09.03.2022
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Russia’s attack on Ukraine marks a profound turning point in Germany’s foreign and security policy. For the first time, Germany supplies weapons to a party to an armed conflict. At the same time, military spending will be increased significantly, and even the reintroduction of compulsory military service is being discussed. Whether the war will also lead to a paradigm shift in international law is less clear. The relevant rules of international peace and conflict law have been flagrantly violated by Russia. However, their validity is not questioned by the international community, as the UN General Assembly resolution of 1 March 2022 impressively demonstrated. However, an old sub-field of international humanitarian law is experiencing a renaissance with the question of whether Germany is violating the neutrality requirement by supplying arms to Ukraine.
For a country like Germany, which for historical reasons has so far refrained from supplying arms to parties to an open armed conflict – but which is nonetheless the world’s fourth-largest arms supplier – the question of how to assess military support for warring parties under international law arises for the first time in the context of the current war in Ukraine. While some try to reconcile arms deliveries and the neutrality requirement with the help of the concept of “qualified neutrality” or by referring to “moral-philosophical” arguments, others do not want to attach any importance to the law of neutrality in the current case. In this post, I develop an argumentation based on positive law focussing on the categorical distinction between unlawful and lawful use of force and taking into account the functions of both the UN Charter and international humanitarian law.
The Law of Neutrality: Foundations and Function
The foundations of the law of neutrality can still be found in two conventions adopted at the Second Hague Peace Conference in 1907: Convention (V) Concerning the Rights and Duties of Neutral Powers and Persons in Case of War on Land and Convention (XIII) Concerning the Rights and Duties of Neutral Powers in Naval War.
The essence of both conventions is that a neutral state, i.e. a state not involved in an armed conflict, may not make its territory available to support one of the parties. Despite certain ambiguities in the text, the supply of arms and ammunition to a party to a conflict is also considered a violation of the obligation of neutrality. Whether and to what extent these rules also (continue to) apply under customary law is debatable, but need not matter in view of the clear starting position under treaty law.
However, it must be asked whether the Hague Conventions, despite their continued formal status as applicable treaty law, can still claim validity today. First, it is conceivable that the rules have become invalid due to non-use or new customary law (so-called desuetudo). However, the conditions under which a treaty loses its validity under customary law are disputed. It is true that the Fifth Hague Convention currently has only 34 contracting parties, most of whom acceded at the beginning of the 20th century. However, there were some accessions after World War II and even one accession after 1990: Ukraine joined the treaty in 2015. For this reason alone, it cannot be argued that the convention lost validity.
However, when thinking about the law of neutrality today, the historical background of its emergence must be taken into account: At the beginning of the 20th century, war was not yet legally outlawed as a means of international relations. There was a largely unrestricted ius ad bellum. In addition to the humanitarian goals of the international law of war, it was primarily a matter of ordering legal positions in view of the fundamentally “lawless” possibility of resorting to military force. In this respect, it was (also) necessary to regulate who was involved in an armed conflict in the legal sense and who was neutral, and what legal consequences resulted from this. Against this background, it seemed sensible to subject the participation of states in conflicts to a regime in which they were either neutral or party to the conflict.
From ius ad bellum to ius contra bellum: The Significance of the Prohibition of the Use of Force for the Right of Neutrality
The prohibition of the use of force, which was established by the Kellogg-Briand Pact and is now firmly anchored in Art. 2 (4) of the UN Charter and in customary law, has fundamentally changed the legal situation dating from before World War I. The fundamental norm of peace and security law now no longer concerns the question of who is involved in a conflict, but whether the use of force is unlawful or exceptionally lawful. International law on armed conflicts no longer seeks to regulate forms of participation, but rather to legally evaluate the exercise of armed force.
The use of force is lawful if it has been mandated or authorized by the UN Security Council. Apart from UN peacekeeping missions, this was most recently the case in 2011, when the Security Council allowed UN members to use “all necessary means” against Libya to protect civilians from attacks by the Libyan government. It is likely that this was the last UN Security Council decision with such a mandate for a long time. The second justification is therefore likely to become even more important in the future: the right of self-defense. According to this, military force can be justified if it is used for the purpose of self-defense. Under charter and customary law, both individual and collective self-defense are justified.
There is no question that since 24 February 2022, Russia has been conducting an unjustifiable armed attack that meets all the characteristics of the 1974 Definition of Aggression. Ukraine is thus entitled to the “inherent” (Art. 51 UN Charter) right of self-defense. At the same time, all states that support Ukraine in its defense against the Russian attack with armed force could also invoke the right of self-defense if Ukraine had asked for their support. Such a use of military force would thus be lawful and cannot entail reprisals, as the International Law Commission has stated in Article 21 of the Draft Articles on State Responsibility. This justification prevails over other obligations under international law.
The question now arises as to why this should not apply if a third state does not itself intervene on the side of the defending state, but “merely” supports it with weapons. If one were to regard the “mere” supply of weapons as a violation of the neutrality requirement and thus as contrary to international law, this would lead to a contradiction of values: The state intervening more strongly in the conflict would be acting lawfully, while the state intervening less strongly would be acting unlawfully. Such a view would also create an incentive to participate directly in a conflict. It will therefore be possible to regard the supply of arms to the defending state as a “minus” compared with active participation and therefore also as justified.
Conversely, the – possibly formerly neutral – state that supports the aggressor with arms deliveries and otherwise either becomes an aggressor itself according to Art. 3 lit. f) of the Definition of Aggression if it makes its territory available for carrying out the aggression, or commits aiding and abetting aggression in the sense of 16 of the Draft Articles on State Responsibility. These legal assessments also override the violation of the neutrality requirement.
Possible Objections: Purpose of International Humanitarian Law and Prevention of Further Escalation

The a maiore ad minus conclusion developed above faces two weighty counter-arguments: first, one might object, it blurs the strict distinction between ius ad bellum (the law of prevention and justification of force) and ius in bello, which also protects the aggressor regardless of the legality of the use of force. However, this principle must be guided by the main protective purpose of international humanitarian law after 1949: The protection of those particularly affected by military force (wounded, prisoners, civilians) and not the qualification of states as participants in a conflict. Even if one justifies the violation of the formally applicable duty of neutrality by recourse to the right of self-defense, this does not lead to a reduction of the principles of treaty and customary humanitarian law as it developed after 1949.
A second, perhaps more substantial, objection concerns the danger of escalation of armed violence that the law of neutrality is designed to counter. Arms supplies and other assistance are intended to support one side and thereby enhance its military capabilities. This can lead to a prolongation of the conflict and thus, in effect, to its escalation. Moreover, there is a risk that the aggressor will respond with further – but in this case again unjustified – violence. From a legal point of view, however, the argument developed here does not increase the risk of escalation. Arms deliveries are only justified if they support the legitimately defending state. The fact that in recent decades states have repeatedly invoked the right of self-defense unjustly is not a valid objection: The state providing support bears the risk of providing support in violation of international law itself. That this is low in such clear-cut cases as the Ukraine war is obvious. In this respect, a clear assessment by the General Assembly is also likely to play a significant role in such cases. Moreover, the view here leads to the conclusion that the state that wishes to support a self-defending state in a manner that is in conformity with international law is not limited to active participation in the conflict.
When is a State Party to a Conflict in the Sense of International Humanitarian Law?
The question of when a state is a party to a conflict within the meaning of international humanitarian law should also not be answered by recourse to the law of neutrality. Rather, the rules of the Geneva Conventions and their Additional Protocols apply. According to these, a state is a party to a conflict if a person participates in a conflict by armed force and this behavior can be attributed to the state in question. The applicable humanitarian law focuses on who is acting and to whom this action can be attributed – also and especially for the difficult questions of demarcation regarding the participation of civilians in a conflict. In this respect, the state that supplies weapons but whose personnel provide advice and assistance in the use of the weapons can also become a party to the conflict in this sense.
Summary
In conclusion, it can be stated: If one still considers the law of neutrality to be applicable, Germany may have violated the neutrality requirement by supplying arms to Ukraine. However, this violation is not an offense under international law that would entitle Russia to reprisals. Rather, arms deliveries are justified as a less drastic measure than open participation in the conflict, analogous to the right to collective self-defense. Nevertheless, Germany does not become a party to the conflict in the sense of international humanitarian law as long as no military force attributable to Germany is exercised in the Ukraine war. In this respect, Germany is justifiably not neutral in the war, but it is not a party to the conflict either.
Markus Krajewski, Neither Neutral nor Party to the Conflict?: On the Legal Assessment of Arms Supplies to Ukraine, Völkerrechtsblog, 09.03.2022, doi: 10.17176/20220310-000928-0.
Markus Krajewski
Markus Krajewski teaches public law and international law at Friedrich-Alexander-University Erlangen-Nürnberg. He chairs the Board of Trustees of the German Institute for Human Rights and is Secretary General of the German Branch of the International Law Association.
 
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It is even worse, he said ”not neutral”.
Based on that, the US could not bomb Germany in WWII, since they were certainly ”not neutral”.
i answered that to Viet and you see its about certain group moral high its not about neutral or else
What part if this do you not understand?

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the part it say you can attack third part who is not neutral but didn't provide personnel or facilitate it or allowed one of the parties use its land or air or ... to attack the other party .
 
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As mercenaries, they are not covered by the Geneva convention . Anyone joining this lot needs to think about that
Nationals of a Belligerent party in a war are never Mercenaries regardless of compensation. A Syrian joining Wagner would be a mercenary unless he is a resident of Russia.

i answered that to Viet and you see its about certain group moral high its not about neutral or else

the part it say you can attack third part who is not neutral but didn't provide personnel or facilitate it or allowed one of the parties use its land or air or ... to attack the other party .

From the article above.

Conversely, the – possibly formerly neutral – state that supports the aggressor with arms deliveries and otherwise either becomes an aggressor itself according to Art. 3 lit. f) of the Definition of Aggression if it makes its territory available for carrying out the aggression, or commits aiding and abetting aggression in the sense of 16 of the Draft Articles on State Responsibility. These legal assessments also override the violation of the neutrality requirement.

As an agressor, you can be attacked in a war of selfdefense.
 
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When is a State Party to a Conflict in the Sense of International Humanitarian Law?
The question of when a state is a party to a conflict within the meaning of international humanitarian law should also not be answered by recourse to the law of neutrality. Rather, the rules of the Geneva Conventions and their Additional Protocols apply. According to these, a state is a party to a conflict if a person participates in a conflict by armed force and this behavior can be attributed to the state in question. The applicable humanitarian law focuses on who is acting and to whom this action can be attributed – also and especially for the difficult questions of demarcation regarding the participation of civilians in a conflict. In this respect, the state that supplies weapons but whose personnel provide advice and assistance in the use of the weapons can also become a party to the conflict in this sense.
take a note of your article please

Nationals of a Belligerent party in a war are never Mercenaries regardless of compensation. A Syrian joining Wagner would be a mercenary unless he is a resident of Russia.



From the article above.

Conversely, the – possibly formerly neutral – state that supports the aggressor with arms deliveries and otherwise either becomes an aggressor itself according to Art. 3 lit. f) of the Definition of Aggression if it makes its territory available for carrying out the aggression, or commits aiding and abetting aggression in the sense of 16 of the Draft Articles on State Responsibility. These legal assessments also override the violation of the neutrality requirement.

As an agressor, you can be attacked in a war of selfdefense.
as of the date nobody allowed Russia its land to attack Ukraine i assume what you mean is in that article now as I'm not gonna read all 114 page where in that article exactly

and in definition of aggression in this one you post https://documents-dds-ny.un.org/doc/RESOLUTION/GEN/NR0/739/16/IMG/NR073916.pdf?OpenElement
nowhere stated that sending weapon to a warring country is considred as aggression only sending force and allowing to use your territory to attack the third country
 
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Well, even China have medicine shortage.


This is more of a supply chain problem than war in Ukraine problem. By the way the top 3 pharm country in the world are India, China and Isreal, where the top 3 Pharma company are in US (J&J), Israel (Tava) and Germany (Bayer)


You act like an expert and go-to-go guy but you always fail to do a simple search. The war in Ukraine affects everything nowadays, especially the Europe's medicine supply. 👇

Source: https://www.reuters.com/markets/eur...ial-medicine-supply-chains-report-2022-10-27/

"LONDON, Oct 27 (Reuters) - Surging energy costs in Europe risk accelerating an exodus of companies critical in the manufacture of essential medicines, further endangering drug supply chains hit by shortages at the height of COVID-19, drug ingredient makers say.
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Now, the war in Ukraine and the associated energy and economic crises threaten to "debase the continent's pharmaceutical sector for good for some critical medicines," , Teva (TEVA.TA), one of the world's biggest generic drug makers, wrote in a report published on Thursday. "
 
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nowhere stated that sending weapon to a warring country is considred as aggression only sending force and allowing to use your territory to attack the third country
You should use this wonderful American invention call 'the internet'...

You talked as if there are no precedents. There are, and to be fair, I will use the US as a negative example.


Providing weapons to Ukraine constitutes the use of force against Russia. In the Nicaragua case, the International Court of Justice (icj) specifically held that the United States’ (US) ‘arming and training’ of the contras ‘can certainly be said to involve the… use of force against Nicaragua’.12 Although the Court was addressing a non-international armed conflict, not an international one, ‘the logic of the Court’s holding arguably applies equally to iac, for if arming and training a non-State group fighting a State is a use of force… why would it not also be a use of force to provide arms to another State engaging in hostilities against that State?’​

Basically, the ICJ ruled that the US arming rebel groups -- the contras -- constitutes aggression against Nicaragua. But not only has the ICJ, but members of this forum opined that the US did committed 'aggression' against Nicaragua during the Cold War. So if the US was the aggressor against Nicaragua even though the US never sent troops, the US today is a belligerent against Russia by providing weapons to Ukraine.

Providing Ukraine with weapons thus cannot be considered an internationally wrongful act – a conclusion supported by Art. 21 of the Articles on State Responsibility, which provides that ‘[t]he wrongfulness of an act of a State is precluded if the act constitutes a lawful measure of self- defence taken in conformity with the Charter of the United Nations’.​

So even though the US and allies are technically 'belligerents' against Russia, their collective actions cannot be considered 'wrongful' because Russia was the first 'aggressor' of the war, and since Ukraine has the moral right to self defense, Ukraine also has the moral right to call for help, and anyone responding to that call realizes what they are entering into.

3.1 What Actions Violate the Law of Neutrality?​


Excellent question. Let us see...

The fundamental principle of the law of neutrality is that a neutral state is prohibited from providing any kind of support to a belligerent that is capable of influencing the outcome of the armed conflict.​

This principle is not new. It is actually common sense and has been so since warfare began who knows how long ago. If you claimed neutrality, you stay out of the fight.

Providing Ukraine with intelligence used to target Russian military objectives almost certainly violates the duty of impartiality.32 The US may well be engaged in such intelligence sharing, despite its insistence that it is ‘not providing the kind of real-time targeting’ that ‘steps over the line’ but is instead simply sharing information that helps Ukraine ‘inform and develop their military response to Russia’s invasion’.​

Currently, there are uncertainties as to whether intelligence constitutes DIRECT support or indirect support. That is why the words 'almost certainly' with emphasis on 'almost' because no one agreed -- so far -- as to the effectiveness of intelligence in the first place. Which is worse, scaring you to death or actually stab you to death? How long would it take to scare you to death? Scaring you to death actually take more resources and time. That was the Cold War. The US and allies essentially scared the Soviet Union to death.

What I gave you is an excellent article with analyses on the Russia-Ukraine War. The bottom line is that IF Iran sold Russia any form of weaponry, Iran is an 'aggressor' against Ukraine.
 
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You act like an expert and go-to-go guy but you always fail to do a simple search. The war in Ukraine affects everything nowadays, especially the Europe's medicine supply. 👇

Source: https://www.reuters.com/markets/eur...ial-medicine-supply-chains-report-2022-10-27/

"LONDON, Oct 27 (Reuters) - Surging energy costs in Europe risk accelerating an exodus of companies critical in the manufacture of essential medicines, further endangering drug supply chains hit by shortages at the height of COVID-19, drug ingredient makers say.
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Now, the war in Ukraine and the associated energy and economic crises threaten to "debase the continent's pharmaceutical sector for good for some critical medicines," , Teva (TEVA.TA), one of the world's biggest generic drug makers, wrote in a report published on Thursday. "
sure, it affects China ability to make these drug, even tho China makes most of their drug locally, and was either number 1 or number 2 world exporter.


Tell me, did Russia or West sanction China too? Do let me know how China affected by the War in Ukraine??

Dude, sometimes it's okay to acknowledge you are ignorant in a topic. Instead of trying to accuse someone else is stupid,, because it usually makes you look stupid. Even in your own link it said the European Drug shortage is due to supply chain issue, not the inflation or sanction issue, unless you can somehow blame COVID to the current War in Ukraine.

Surging energy costs in Europe risk accelerating an exodus of companies critical in the manufacture of essential medicines, further endangering drug supply chains hit by shortages at the height of COVID-19,
 
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