In 637 AD, Muslims led by Omar Bin Khaddab (ra), the Second Leader of Islam after the Prophet (peace be upon), seized the Holy Land from the Byzantium Christian rulers. Under the Treaty signed by Khalif Omar (ra) and Byzantium Patriarch Sophronius, "No Jews were allowed to live in Jerusalem". (Source:
https://www.islamicity.org/11511/capture-of-jerusalem-the-treaty-of-umar/)
Let us not forget under the Byzantium Christian rulers, who ruled the Holy Land between 70 BCE - 637 AD, no Jew was allowed to live in the Holy Land.
In your faith, you call it living in the diaspora between the time the Second Temple was destroyed (70 BCE) till the formation of the current Israel in 1948.
So my question is, if you believed in living in the diaspora for over 2000 years and Byzantium rulers didn't even allow you to live in the Holy Land for the time they controlled, how can you justify the continued 3500 years of presence that you claimed? That is 2700 years that Jews didn't have a presence or their existence in the Holy Land was very minuscule.
Fyi, I am not denying Jewish presence in the Holy Land in different times depending upon their situation; I am just questioning the new claim that has been manufactured recently that states 3500 years of continued presence when the facts show otherwise.