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The question is how much of it. The primary reason why we got IMF loans for reduce budget deficit and pay off previous loans. Most likely only a small chunk of those loans went to forex reserve.
But what he's discounting is the fact that loans do not go towards forex reserves.
But what he's discounting is the fact that loans do not go towards forex reserves.
I've already said about a dozen times or so now. Primarly, they do not go toward forex reserves. Maybe a small portion or so, yes.
So can anyone explain what Forex reserves mean?
Thanks
Can't you say that for every single loan that a country gets, then? Subtract loans from forex reserve to get real forex reserve. Pakistan would be around - 40 billion, bharat would be about even, not sure about others.
Come on. If you don't know, please say so. Half fitted knowledge wouldn't help. IMF loans are given in dollars which can't be used for trade inside Pakistan, so Central bank of Pakistan takes those dollars and exchange them with Pakistani rupees (mostly print new ones since dollar is seen as substitute for gold in markets). So loans go straight into forex reserves of central bank. Hence increase in money supply hence inflation.
Ah here comes self-proclaimed expert. So tell me then, if it went into forex reserves, where did we get the money for which these loans were mainly meant for? i.e. paying off previous debt or taking care of budget deficit, and even of that it was primarily for paying off previous debt.
Oh wait, we have to pay our debt in USD. So much for the self-proclaimed expert.