First, you want to ready it carefully. It's saying 55% is Pakistan's, therefore 45% is loans.
Now as for that 45% is concerned, even there he's making a logical fallacy there. He's saying that we have got 8 billion so far in loans, and we have 17.5 billion billion in forex reserves (8 billion is roughly 45% of 17.5 billion - so that's how he's getting the 45% figure), so therefore we have 9.5 billion in real forex reserves. That's absolute stupidity, because as I said, at best, only a fraction of the loan went to foreign reserve. He's using the oversimplistic argument that all of it went there - his logic is out of order. The government doesn't show where the forex reserve comes from.
The IMF loan was primarily meant for debt repayment, yes. Not all of it, but primarily. That's why I am saying that only a small fraction perhaps 10-20% would go to forex reserves. So of the total forex reserves, perhaps 5-10% would come from loans.
Now as for that 45% is concerned, even there he's making a logical fallacy there. He's saying that we have got 8 billion so far in loans, and we have 17.5 billion billion in forex reserves (8 billion is roughly 45% of 17.5 billion - so that's how he's getting the 45% figure), so therefore we have 9.5 billion in real forex reserves. That's absolute stupidity, because as I said, at best, only a fraction of the loan went to foreign reserve. He's using the oversimplistic argument that all of it went there - his logic is out of order. The government doesn't show where the forex reserve comes from.
The IMF loan was primarily meant for debt repayment, yes. Not all of it, but primarily. That's why I am saying that only a small fraction perhaps 10-20% would go to forex reserves. So of the total forex reserves, perhaps 5-10% would come from loans.