The Crown Colony of India existed from 1858 onwards, ruled over by the Governor-General and Viceroy, in the latter position representing the British Crown. India existed within British legislation from much earlier than that. In fact, India existed from the time of 1498, when, we are told, Da Gama knocked at India's gate. It was India to which their galleons had come, replete with little fortresses and tiny kingdoms around these.
What ever you trying to convey is beyond me..............
-- Crown Colony on India existed from 1858 onwards.............OK
-- India existed within British legislation......................eh, from when Nations or state states existed from legislation of other nations......?
-- In fact, India existed from the time of 1498................. ek, what if Vasco Day Gama has not come, then India has not existed?
Why is that, you are trying to show the existence of nation of India, by this report of a visitor, or to a historical reference in books of Greeks etc.
<sigh>
Look at your post. My answers are interspersed.
I would like to meet the Pakistani who says that Pakistan existed before 1947. What sense does that make?
Source: https://defence.pk/threads/kashmir-has-always-been-a-part-of-pakistan.457619/page-3#ixzz4O78CxJs2
A convoluted response; I asked that "People (mostly Indians) say that Pakistan didn't exited before 1947; and in same breath, also say; India or Kashmir existed for thousands of years" .When asked, how so, one would say, Greeks mentioned in this b.c. the Kasperia; the Indus: the Indica:
There would be 1.3 billion Indians that would say India existed from thousands of years.
Follow the below link for "5000 year of Pakistan"
https://www.amazon.co.uk/5000-Years-Pakistan-Archaeological-Outline/dp/B003UI5EY6
Since you are obviously ignorant, as your question demonstrates, let me illustrate the point by asking you a simple question: When did the modern nation-state come into existence? What was the status of nations before that?
Source:
https://defence.pk/threads/kashmir-has-always-been-a-part-of-pakistan.457619/page-3#ixzz4O76w5Hdp
Yes I am ignorant to peoples claims that two countries came into being by carving a single state (British India), how come one existed from "ancient time'' and other existed from 1947.
As long as river Indus
was/is flowing the land eastwards to it
will be known as India, Indus , Al-Hind, Hindustan , Tianzhu, Tenjiku, Bharatavarsha, Aryavarta etc. All meaning one.
Here is a brain injection:
Indus river is flowing for millions of year, and only recently, about the vedic time', land of the seven rivers (Indus+ 5 rivers of Punjab+now dried-up Saraswati) was called Sapta-Sindhu- roughly Area roughly now Pakistan: Few centuries down, the Mahabharata time...We have Mahajanapadas and now Area under consideration is extended up to present day Bengal, and in south the to vindhya range (that is, present peninsular India excluded).
and further few centuries later, here came the Greeks and there history; again they called the land on both sides of Indus called the Indica (not the eastward of Indus only);
Further down the time line, the Persians called the land adjacent to their Kingdom, present day Baluchistan and Sindh, as Sind, which became as Hind etc..
Main point is that all nomenclature used was to refer to certain different geographical locations during different times,
Not to a state or nation or any other political entity....
So your assertion "
was" is totally absurd and ridiculous. as for your "
will be" go ahead and rewrite the history books.
You may get for yourself a dozen brain injections from Joe Shearer, surely at a discount.