PureAryan
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plz sir whoever u r...dont give wrong facts....history is not a product of biased mind...u r exactly like a nazi in ur approach, n it lead them where, u know better than me..
now to correct u....the name "India" is derived from the word "sindh". & not by greeks but by persians... Persians had trouble with pronouncing the word "s" & accordind to their phonetics they pronounced "sind" as "hind"...or "hindu" , to all the inhabitants on the east of river sindhu i.e. indus ...
this word "hind" over a period of time became "Ind" or "India"...as pronounced by the greeks who came 200 hundred yrs after persians.
Like it doesn't mean that u r still "hindus" ( or u may call urself one as it is factually correct) , or the word's boundary is decided by the political boundary of present day pakistan..
now the word "bharat" has totally different origins.
the word "bharatdesha" first came up in Kharavela's hathigumpha inscription in post nanda period in kalinga ( roughly present day orrissa)
It also is related to "brahmdesha"or "aryavarta", which includes region east of indus to bengal , n from himalayas to vindhyas & is mentioned in upanishad of yajurveda . it was basically to denote a place where aryans reside or region of aryans.
PLS dont make a mockery of history with imposing ur present day idealogies . History is empirical n factual n not somebody's imagination.
I have answered this questions dozens of times with given references on the thread about adopting name india.
What you wrote is not correct please visit the thread