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Is ancient India overrated? A mind blowing analysis by Chinese professor

You share border with Gujarat and Rajastan too and they are much longer than punjab .

the difference is they only share border while we Punjabi Sindhi Pashtun Baloch share much more. For example do you know Hindko people living in KPK, they look like Pashtun and speak like Punjabis, do you know their are many Punjabis with Pashtun tribal heritage like Imran Khan.. southern Punjab is hub of mixture of Punjab Baloch and Sindh, where Punjabi and Baloch tribe speak mixture of Sindhi and Punjabi. Yeah they may have dwell in our region due to border but seriously Rajhasthani are even more alien to us then bhaiyya of UP. I dont even know what they speak...

Fun fact, i have never met a rajhasthani claiming anything similar to us, most of the time its either bhaiyya or obsessed tamil and other southern who are as alien to us as martian..
 
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The stupidity of this line of argument is that the same boundaries existed for the 5000 year old history of the subcontinent.
And as far as my people are concerned, the Marathas ruled large swathes of present day Pakistan. So YES! They absolutely shared land at different points in time with your ancestors. That is if you're even from Pakistan.
And FYI, I consider Marathas as Dravidians.

And please for god's sake, stop making asinine comparisons with Indians in the UK. You're just embarrassing yourself at this point.


No he's not. You've not refuted any of his claims. By the way jist like the indian martis, the British, Iranians, Greeks etc ruled large swathes of modern day Pakistan in the past. Barring the Iranians, do Pakistanis now have a racial connection to the Greeks, Macedonians or the English.........lol......:lol:
 
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India was created in 1947, before that, there was no such state as India. I suggest you re-read the history of the British Raj, since that is the starting point of the modern day state of India.

However, if you want to state that your people have been here before the state of India was founded, then go ahead. There is no difference of opinion there.
This is where the issue is. Indians are deluded into thinking that what pre-existed 1947 was their "India" and "their" India was partitioned into Pakistan. What they don't understand it was alogether another entity - a colonial empire which had a British flag and the citizens were British subjects. That entity was divided into Burma, Bangladesh, Indian Republic and Pakistan amongst others. The chart below gives a accurate timeline.

First this is the delusion Indian's live in.

CSCyOWD.png



This below is the actual reality.


bMjWr3L.png



Below is the detailed reality of the history of our part of the world.



jyBi1gA.png



Ps. I have researched this subject in depth and made these infographics to sum up the reality. Consider these as my golden bullets laced with garlic to put the Ganga Dracul Indians in place - shaking them out of their delusions. Please note them and use them. Share them. Educate our people. Thanks
 
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No he's not. You've not refuted any of his claims. By the way jist like the indian martis, the British, Iranians, Greeks etc ruled large swathes of modern day Pakistan in the past. Barring the Iranians, do Pakistanis now have a racial connection to the Greeks, Macedonians or the English.........lol......:lol:

Listen pip squeak...
Don't jump into the argument without reading what is being discussed here...
My quote was, "Indians and Pakistanis have shared the same piece of land for millennia"

I just showed you how Indians from a place not bordering present day Pakistan shared the land with what could be considered your ancestors.
No one is claiming a Marathi is the same as a Punjabi...If so, show me where I claimed such. Now don't go on tangents to make your ridiculous claims.
 
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Listen pip squeak...
Don't jump into the argument without reading what is being discussed here...
My quote was, "Indians and Pakistanis have shared the same piece of land for millennia"

I just showed you how Indians from a place not bordering present day Pakistan shared the land with what could be considered your ancestors.
No one is claiming a Marathi is the same as a Punjabi...If so, show me where I claimed such. Now don't go on tangents to make your ridiculous claims.



Little boy, the British, Macedonians and Greeks "shared" land in now what is now modern day Pakistan. They too did not share a border with Pakistan. So what's your point?
 
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This is where the issue is. Indians are deluded into thinking that what pre-existed 1947 was their "India" and "their" India was partitioned into Pakistan. What they don't understand it was alogether another entity - a colonial empire which had a British flag and the citizens were British subjects. That entity was divided into Burma, Bangladesh, Indian Republic and Pakistan amongst others. The chart below gives a accurate timeline.

First this is the delusion Indian's live in.

CSCyOWD.png



This below is the actual reality.


bMjWr3L.png



Below is the detailed reality of the history of our part of the world.



jyBi1gA.png



Ps. I have researched this subject in depth and made these infographics to sum up the reality. Consider these as my golden bullets laced with garlic to put the Ganga Dracul Indians in place - shaking them out of their delusions. Please note them and use them. Share them. Educate our people. Thanks

Buddy, I'm sure you think yourself some Professor of sorts, but don't let that go to your head.
Your theories are, but just theories and no one of repute will subscribe to them, except maybe the Pakistan Forever type individuals. But that's like being called the mentor of the village idiot. So I wouldn't take that to the bank if I were you.

Secondly, pre partition India was exactly, India + Pakistan + BD. Wonder who the British conquered those lands from, must have been martians no?
That land was shared by people from different parts at different points in time.
This is a FACT! I just gave you an example of how that happened with the Marathas ruling larges areas of present day Pakistan.

So prove my statement "Indians and Pakistanis have shared this piece of land for millennia" wrong or change the course of history. The latter is not possible and from the looks of it, except for tangential misplaced comparisons, the former seems impossible too.
 
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This is all part of a well planned and executed CPC plan. Its going to go on for decades to try to portray India as a non-culture

 
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Little boy, the British, Macedonians and Greeks "shared" land in now what is now modern day Pakistan. They too did not share a border with Pakistan. So what's your point?

Can you not read?
That is the point.
That is the statement in question that your pal Kaptaan was arguing over. I proved him wrong by giving him the example of the Marathas.
Now don't be thick.

Hi,

Mongols destroyed a major part---so which part is ancient.

Oh I'm no expert on Chinese history. I just regurgitated a common saying.

So maybe the lesson is, not to emulate any historic civilizations as they all faced their demise.
Maybe charting your own new path is the way to go...

Besides, those who live in the past, forget about their future!
 
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Can you not read?
That is the point.
That is the statement in question that your pal Kaptaan was arguing over. I proved him wrong by giving him the example of the Marathas.
Now don't be thick.



Oh I'm no expert on Chinese history. I just regurgitated a common saying.

So maybe the lesson is, not to emulate any historic civilizations as they all faced their demise.
Maybe charting your own new path is the way to go...

Besides, those who live in the past, forget about their future!


Can you provide a link of the martis ruling in what is now modern day Pakistan?
 
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Can you provide a link of the martis ruling in what is now modern day Pakistan?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maratha_Empire

What. Please expand?

My statement: "Indians and Pakistanis have shared the same piece of land for millennia."
Your Response: "No they have NOT. I am certain non of my people lived anywhere you live. And vice versa to you"
My retort: Maratha Empire that covered large parts of present day Pakistan.

Assuming you draw ancestry from those people who live in Present day Pakistan, the fact that the Marathas ruled parts of Pakistan indicates that at different points in time during the 5 millennia of history of Indian and Pakistani lands, people who were not from bordering areas of the present day India and Pak had lived and intermingled with each other. So to say that Indians and Pakistanis shared the same piece of land would be true.
That would make your statement (highlighted above) false.

Hope its clear enough for you now.
 
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My retort: Maratha Empire that covered large parts of present day Pakistan.
Peshwa, seriously. Please give us some credit. Do you think I read my history by using Wiki? It should never be used for anything contestable as "fanboy contributors" just bend and warp the contents. That map you posted prepared by Longman's has no key that clarifies the colouring. Instead it has been annotated. I could change that to say "Kaptaan" ruled the green areas. No serious book I have read shows Maratha control over what is now Pakistan. The Maratha tide just about made contact with what was then Punjab and then receded. You can't use that to configure that what is now Pakistan was ruled by Marathas. Your seriously pushing the envelope in your attempt to peddle your narrative.

In the same Wikipedia.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Presidencies_and_provinces_of_British_India



93px-India1760_1905.jpg


Quote -

"The Indian peninsula in 1760, three years after the Battle of Plassey, showing the Maratha Empire and other prominent political states."
 
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Peshwa, seriously. Please give us some credit. Do you think I read my history by using Wiki? It should never be used for anything contestable as "fanboy contributors" just bend and warp the contents. That map you posted prepared by Longman's has no key that clarifies the colouring. Instead it has been annotated. I could change that to say "Kaptaan" ruled the green areas. No serious book I have read shows Maratha control over what is now Pakistan. The Maratha tide just about made contact with what was then Punjab and then receded. You can't use that to configure that what is now Pakistan was ruled by Marathas. Your seriously pushing the envelin your attempt to peddle your narrative.

In the same Wikipedia.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Presidencies_and_provinces_of_British_India



93px-India1760_1905.jpg


Quote -

"The Indian peninsula in 1760, three years after the Battle of Plassey, showing the Maratha Empire and other prominent political states."


I'm assuming you've missed out on these books then. Or are you going to dismiss these because they don't speak your version of history?


https://books.google.com/books?id=zp0FbTniNaYC&pg=PA103#v=onepage&q&f=false

https://books.google.com/books?id=yoI8AAAAIAAJ&pg=PA445#v=onepage&q&f=false

PS: About the map. And this I'm asking you out of curiosity and a thirst for knowledge, why would one need a key on the map when the map itself is labelled as "Maratha states" by longman? Don't think I quite got your point on the dismissal of the map.
 
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