This is your own subjective inference vis a vis the entire text in question.
The ruling specifically mentions both pk and ind having conflicts of interest with respect to the issue hence neither can abrogate the rights of the people of j&k regarding self determination within its 1947 boundaries. If you refer to Samad's post it is plain to see even for a non-legal person like me.
Nowhere is there any statement that objectively supports this inserted idea that India and j&k should debate themselves the plebiscite issue. In fact, it is made clear that India (like Pakistan,) has a baseline conflict of interest (not to mention carries undue leverage over the people of j&k by virtue of the fact that it militarily enforces rule in that state) regarding any decision on the plebiscite. In short, India would be BIASED (as would Pakistan). The full text from the court ruling appears to be a sound attempt at diminishing such bias.
You need to understand the nature of these commissions first. They are a group of jurist who set out for a fact finding mission and then make comments with each country given a chance to attach their own legal responses to the same fact finding report. These comments are legal in nature and most of the time very subjective with diverse opinion in legal fraternity.
Right to self determination, as per this ICJ group was acquired at the time of partition, however we have a right to evaluate their findings and so as other legal operators through out the world. There is a reason why these are just comments and not judgements.
As per Simla agreement, India and Pakistan were binded to settle all its dispute bilaterally and that was re enforced by ICJ as well which leave no two opinions about its interpretation and that is well conceived by neutral parties
Now ICJ remark on right to self determination is what I am contesting as this right was not acquired by Kashmiris in isolation in 1947, as self determination was never a tool in Indian Independence Act and no other princely state got that privileges. However since India had to go to UN under article 35 because of Pakistan refusal to accept J&K accession to India, it was lodged as a dispute between India and Pakistan and resolutions were passed under chapter VI of UN which can provide only recommendation to parties involved to resolve dispute peacefully.
India and Pakistan mutually agreed on Aug 13, 1948 resolution, but the principal guidelines mentioned there were not acceptable to Pakistan (complete withdrawal of its force and let India administer plebiscite) and other proposals were rejected by India. Kashmir was never a litigant in this dispute, thus India argues that kashmir did not acquire any right to self determination out of India Pakistan dispute, but it was a tool suggested by UN for peaceful settlement, and till date its still a recommendation.
However after Simla, India Pakistan can refer UN only by mutual consent, if they chose other method to resolve the issue, UN has to accept that method and close the case. How can in this case it bacame a right of Kashmiris to ask for self determination? And home come right be not absolute and they must chose between India and Pakistan only? That's where ICJ group comments were incorrect, and India made its remark challenging this finding.
I can still give benefit of doubt to ICJ because this commission was set in 1995, during peak of insurgency and their comment might be under the impression of recent events of human right violation and thus jurist must have felt a need of self determination, so it could be a good ask from humanity perspective but bad in law.