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Impact of Bollywood on pakistani news channel

Yes, they are taught the same thing in Pakistani textbooks. :cheesy:
Pakistani textbooks controversy - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

A Text Book of Pakistan Studies claims that "Pakistan came to be established for the first time when the Arabs under Mohammad bin Qasim occupied Sindh and Multan'; by the thirteenth century 'Pakistan had spread to include the whole of Northern India and Bengal' and then under the Khiljis, Pakistan moved further south-ward to include a greater part of Central India and the Deccan'. [...] The spirit of Pakistan asserted itself', and under Aurangzeb the 'Pakistan spirit gathered in strength'; his death 'weakened the Pakistan spirit'."

It a part of propaganda campaign i know but i will tell the truth today.

The paragraph is taken from a Pakistani book but it is actually cherry picking. The full explanation is here.

There is a chapter named as "ideology of pakistan" in this chapter only ideology is discussed it tells about the ideological boundaries and existence of pakistan and not the physical. Considering arab muslims as different to local indians and declaring Mohammad bin qasim as the first Pakistani keep in mind this chapter is just saying that these people cleared the path of creating Pakistan and nothing else.
 
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Who told you ? , you ruined my Funy post with your geeky but wrong infromation "Hindustan" this term coined by "MUSLIM Perisans" mainly used by Muslims like Mughal,Arabs its like Pakistan, Kazakistan, its coined after 7th cen. arrival of islam.

and in rigveda it's Hindu "STHAN" not stan but this term never used to refer india i know you read wikipidia some stupid joined both the things but its not same may be its derived later in 7th cen.

And Term INDIA coined by Original persians(parasi of todays india) it was in B.C time line greek,Roamns , even Alexander the great used word "INDIA"

and term "BHARAT" Came from KING BHRAT his timeline is unknown but a guess its 5000 years before , BHRAT was ancestor of LORD RAMA , so its before RAMAYANA AND MAHABHARAT

so remove ur stupid post no offence and my friend check infromation from reliable sources not from wiki.

:hitwall:
Don't trust Wiki??
Check page 4 of this link...
http://www.vhp-america.org/dynamic_includes/ebooks/0503hv-1_final.pdf
The author(a member of the Vishva Hindu parishad) of this book clearly mentions that this shloka was found in Baarhaspatyua Samhita which is a part of the Rig Veda. You can check the Samhita mentioned and follow up on this(The samhita itself was lost around 600 years back ,but fragments are available in most copies of the Rig Veda)..............
 
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please correct your stm.

Majority of the time in "KNOWN" history present day Pakistan was not its part.

kandhar in AF was "Gandhar" in ancient india but near about after 300 b.c pak and afghan was in and out many times in india due to invaders

About 800 years out of 5000 years.

Majority of history even Sindh and Punjab were not united. Like the first 500 years of Islamic rule after Arab conquest, Sindh-Multan and North-Punjab-KP were two different entities.

Yes not united but still separate from majority india.
 
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It a part of propaganda campaign i know but i will tell the truth today.

The paragraph is taken from a Pakistani book but it is actually cherry picking. The full explanation is here.

There is a chapter named as "ideology of pakistan" in this chapter only ideology is discussed it tells about the ideological of boundaries and existence of pakistan and not the physical. Considering arab muslims as different to local indians and declaring Mohammad bin qasim as the first Pakistani keep in mind this chapter is just saying that these people cleared the path of creating Pakistan and nothing else.

Anyway, we consider history of Punjab and Sindh as part of Indian history because Sindhi people and Punjabi people are the part of our nation even after partition. It was Gandhara where our Vedas were composed and Panini composed Astadhayayi.
 
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kṣamā;3177247 said:
So what do you want to say ?? Even b4 Republic of India, Republic of Pakistan existed ??

No i am just saying.

We were separate.

We are separate.

We want to remain separate.

Anyway, we consider history of Punjab and Sindh as part of Indian history because Sindhi people and Punjabi people are the part of our nation even after partition. It was Gandhara where our Vedas were composed and Panini composed Astadhayayi.

They were the part of indus valley but being hindu and sikh majority we don't demand that.
 
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No i am just saying.

We were separate.

We are separate.

We want to remain separate.

They were the part of indus valley but being hindu and sikh majority we don't demand that.

There wasn't much linguistic and cultural difference. Punjab and Uttar Pradesh were both speaking Shaurseni Prakrit in 8th century.
 
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About 800 years out of 5000 years.



Yes not united but still separate from majority india.

though pak and afghan had different rulers up to islami invasion but it was referred as part of india because of Culture even by invaders upto Muslim invaders ,they totally destroyed indic culture from that part , so in short it seperated from indian after islami invasion.
 
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No i am just saying.

We were separate.

We are separate.

We want to remain separate.



They were the part of indus valley but being hindu and sikh majority we don't demand that.

Except the bolded part, the rest is fine.
 
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though pak and afghan had different rulers up to islami invasion but it was refered as part of india because of Culture even by invaders upto Muslim invaders ,they totally destroyed indic culture from that part , so in short it seperated from indian after islami invasion

It was not referred to India at that time also.
 
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No i am just saying.

We were separate.

We are separate.

We want to remain separate.



They were the part of indus valley but being hindu and sikh majority we don't demand that.

Doy you know from which year your HIJRA calender starts??
And here we are discussing 5000 and beyond years mate.

We don't want you back. Its gud u separated.
 
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There wasn't much linguistic and cultural difference. Punjab and Uttar Pradesh were both speaking Shaurseni Prakrit in 8th century.

Majority european use to speak latin and greek in roman empire and see now.
 
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No i am just saying.

We were separate.

We are separate.

We want to remain separate.



They were the part of indus valley but being hindu and sikh majority we don't demand that.

Yes you are different, major part of your ancestry came from muslim invaders and few from india(majority by force).
 
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Majority european use to speak latin and greek in roman empire and see now.

Greek is native to Greece and Latin is native to Italy. Other only started speaking those languages, Same like North Africans adopted Arabic.
 
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