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If F16s can't be used against India what are they there for?

The reason it was selected is not because of its performance. Its because the U.S. is not willing the export any of their ALCM to other countries for some reason which hinders the ability for Lockheed to make sales from integration.


Hmm! The performance isn’t the main factor to select Turkish manufacturer, so It means US provider totally risks its prestige and maturity with providing a downgraded missile system to any costumers against Kongsberg JSM right? You should firstly adjust your biassed logic to think freely. You are talking about your assumptions, not reality.

Reality is in here!
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Besides, If US is not willing to provide any cruise missile to costumers, What is that?
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I don't remember where I read it, maybe in his book, but according to George W. Bush, his administration actually sold F-16 Block 52+ C/D to Pakistan to pull its nuclear threshold back a little and bring conventional stability to the region. AMRAAMs were also part of that. The Taliban story was to convince the American Congress to release funds. Bush Admin used to periodically update the American Congress that PAF has effectively employed F-16s against Non-State-Actors & station American personnel in Jacobabad from where the F-16 operated. I think the end-user-agreement for 18 new ones was to never use it for an aggressive purpose, i.e. attack India. But it may have been extended to old ones as well in order to sell new ones. Agreement on new and old ones (MLU) was to not take it foreign exercises, i.e. with China, without prior American consent. I have not seen the contract but I think violation would take place only if the F-16 flew across the LoC on an offensive operation. In the case of full-scale war, everyone in the U.S. knew and still knows F-16 would be used against India.
 
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