Cultural aggression creating demand for Indian goods in Bangladesh

[Saiful Islam]

Look at 4 directions from middle of Bangladesh you will see only India.

The NE states are non existent to Indian government (all you ever hear about is Punjab, BIMARU states) they don't share much in common with mainland Indians except for faith, even then it varies amongst them. 4 sides? Have you looked at the map lately or are you just another ignorant Indian?

 

[Max]

Sweetie, anyone who lived beyond Indus (towards the east) were called HINDUS (H-Indus).
Anyways I don't think this discussion is gonna lead us anywhere.

Ciao.

wrong wanna be induswali gangalander, those who lived on bank of river indus east or west are called hindus.. aka Pakistan.

 

[Red Wolf]

Sweetie, anyone who lived beyond Indus (towards the east) were called HINDUS (H-Indus).
Anyways I don't think this discussion is gonna lead us anywhere.

Ciao.

Except Persians, who actually coined the term Hindu, used it as a ethno-geographical term. It was not used in a religious context. Also, the word "Indus" is the romanised form of the Greek word "Indós" (Ἰνδός).

The discussion leads to the inevitable conclusion that what some might think of as "Indian" is, in fact, English, Persian, and Greek in origin. Ergo, a nationalist monologue based on this verbiage will only lead to a similar exercise in mythic hilarity that is white nationalism based on Mein Kampf.

Source: Hindu / Indus River

 

[Indus Pakistan]

word India was also used by Megasthenes as early as 4th Century B.C.E.

No it was not. "India" was coined by English and has no record before 10thcentury.. It only gained currency post 17th century with the British arrival.

 

[Red Wolf]

No it was not. "India" was coined by English and has no record before 10thcentury.. It only gained currency post 17th century with the British arrival.

The word Megasthenes used was Indica or Indika, not India.

Source: Megasthenes

 

[Kal Muah]

The NE states are non existent to Indian government (all you ever hear about is Punjab, BIMARU states) they don't share much in common with mainland Indians except for faith, even then it varies amongst them. 4 sides? Have you looked at the map lately or are you just another ignorant Indian?

if NE states are non existent to Indian government why do think students rush for NIT Meghalaya? Bhai, keep your logic to yourself, just becuase you hear hindi news channel 24x7 from India, doesnt mean you become and expert on it. This has become a fashion lately, bangladeshis giving lecture about India to Indians.

The word Megasthenes used was Indica or Indika, not India.

Source: Megasthenes

No matter how many times you say they wont believe it, this is the only forum where then can live their dreams, kuch toh chor de bhai. Bahar ka toh sab ko pata hai kaunsa kya hai

Sweetie, anyone who lived beyond Indus (towards the east) were called HINDUS (H-Indus).
Anyways I don't think this discussion is gonna lead us anywhere.

Ciao.

The fact is they dont know what to do, If they accept Indus valley, that means the present generation are converted Hindus. If they dont accept Indus valley, that means they dont know how they arrived in there. In both the cases, they are having a tough time to choose.

 

[Indus Pakistan]

@Red Wolf @Max I posted a long article about this. If you get the time read it. It is not some rant but is peer reviewed academic source.

The term "India" only gained currency after the British arrived post 17 century. It is utter fabrication to say "Hindu" or "India" was used in the past. Yes, there were terms used prior to that but they were not "India" but as listed below. The cheat is in he translation. There is intentional miss match between time and usage. And this simple trick works 9/10 times.

Say if you read a article by Greek writer Herodotus and he mentions Ινδική. The appropriate way to translate that is to look at what he meant by that term and then translate it into 2016 context. That of course would be Pakistan. But the cheaters translate Herodotus's Ινδική into India thus distorting the translation.


1 (a) Ινδική > The Indus region that is modern Pakistan.
(b) Hendosh > The Achaemenid Persian satrapy covering modern Sindh in Pakistan.
2. Ινδική > The Indus region and Ganges basin.
3. Limyrike > Deccan region or modern South India.

@Red Wolf

Ps. I was lucky to get to know a Greek linguist and he provided me this source (link below). He also told me in Ancient Koine Greek Ινδική is pronounced as "Indee-Keys" the suffix as in modern English "Keys".


Source Post 27#: https://defence.pk/threads/hindustan-is-not-india.421350/page-2#ixzz4A36txNZF

 

[Levina]

wrong wanna be induswali gangalander, those who lived on bank of river indus east or west are called hindus.. aka Pakistan.

Lolz
That was entertaining. Thank you.

Except Persians, who actually coined the term Hindu, used it as a ethno-geographical term. It was not used in a religious context. Also, the word "Indus" is the romanised form of the Greek word "Indós" (Ἰνδός).

The discussion leads to the inevitable conclusion that what some might think of as "Indian" is, in fact, English, Persian, and Greek in origin. Ergo, a nationalist monologue based on this verbiage will only lead to a similar exercise in mythic hilarity that is white nationalism based on Mein Kampf.

Source: Hindu / Indus River

No it was not. "India" was coined by English and has no record before 10thcentury.. It only gained currency post 17th century with the British arrival.

IFFFF the term India was made famous by BRITISHERS then either CHRISTOPHER COLOMBUS was a BRITISHER, or if your statements were true he would have named the native Americans HINDUS.

 

[Kal Muah]

@Red Wolf @Max I posted a long article about this. If you get the time read it. It is not some rant but is peer reviewed academic source.

The term "India" only gained currency after the British arrived post 17 century. It is utter fabrication to say "Hindu" or "India" was used in the past. Yes, there were terms used prior to that but they were not "India" but as listed below. The cheat is in he translation. There is intentional miss match between time and usage. And this simple trick works 9/10 times.

Say if you read a article by Greek writer Herodotus and he mentions Ινδική. The appropriate way to translate that is to look at what he meant by that term and then translate it into 2016 context. That of course would be Pakistan. But the cheaters translate Herodotus's Ινδική into India thus distorting the translation.


1 (a) Ινδική > The Indus region that is modern Pakistan.
(b) Hendosh > The Achaemenid Persian satrapy covering modern Sindh in Pakistan.
2. Ινδική > The Indus region and Ganges basin.
3. Limyrike > Deccan region or modern South India.

@Red Wolf

Ps. I was lucky to get to know a Greek linguist and he provided me this source (link below). He also told me in Ancient Koine Greek Ινδική is pronounced as "Indee-Keys" the suffix as in modern English "Keys".


Source Post 27#: https://defence.pk/threads/hindustan-is-not-india.421350/page-2#ixzz4A36txNZF

Indus is an important river system for north India even today. By the Indus Waters Treaty nearly half the river belongs to India. A large chunk of Punjab is fed by its tributaries. Thus, India can legitimately use the name of Indus.

If India cannot be named after Indus, why cannot the same logic be used against King Bharata? After all, he was not the only great king of India and we don't even have historical evidence to his reign. He was neither a character in Ramayana or Mahabharata. He was not a Rig Vedic god. In what way naming after him will make ours more Indian that what are now. Indonesia doesn't even have the Indus river running, but still stick to the name because of its significance.

Why Indus make a much better sense for India's name?

1. The root word from India comes from the Sanskrit word Sindhu that was modified a bit by the Persians to become Hindh and later stylized by the Greeks to become India. It is thus a nexus of 3 great civilizations. That aptly reflects Indian culture too. The core is the Sanskruti, enhanced by the Persian interactions and later built on by the Europeans. Like it or not, we are a mix of all 3.
2. Indus is where the greatest of Indian civilization rose. Whether you are left or right, "Aryan" or "Dravidian" fact is no Indian group disagrees that Indus Valley Civilization is the iconic age for India.
3. Indus acts as the westernmost boundary for the Indian culture. For thousands of years, the river protected India from external threats. Like the Himalayas it acts as the wall of India, mightily protecting the culture. Persians called us Hindus because the people on the eastern side of the Indus had been evolving a distinct culture. This distinction continues to this day - marking the rough borders between West and South Asia.
4. It is the banks of Indus, did our ancients create Universities such as Takshashilawhere some of the greatest Indians like Chanakya, Panini and Charaka taught 2300 years ago.
5. India is the name Greeks glorified in works like Arrian's Indica. India was the country Columbus claimed he was sailing to. India was the root word for Indonesia, our cultural sibling. India is the only country with an ocean named after it. The word India has superior historical importance and symbolism. This is why Jinnah hoped so much that post-1947 India would call herself Hindustan and not India.

 

[OrionHunter]

Didn't knew that the third class saas-bahu serials are actually making profit from BD

And I thought only idiots watch Indian soaps?

That means........Oh well, nuff said!! You get the point!

 

[Kal Muah]

And I thought only idiots watch Indian soaps?

That means........Oh well, nuff said!! You get the point!

Hey there are/were a lot of Indian serials which are/were good.
Tarak Mehta ka Ulta Chasma,
Sarabhai vs Sarabhai,
Comedy Nights With Kapil,
Satyamev Jayate,
Khichdi,
Malgudi Days,
Bharat Ek Khoj,
Maharana Pratap,
Mahadev,
Mungerilal Ke Haseen Sapne,
Nukkad,
Office Office....... and on and on and on. The fact is TV in india is associated mainly with MOMs and not youngsters. Youngsters in India have moved to Internet webseries like,
1. Pitchers,
2. Permanent Roommates,
3. Baked
4. AISHA
5. Happy to be single
6. Bad Indian
7. Writers Block
and lot more are there..
P.S : Forgot to add
Chanakya,
Wagle ki Duniya,
Ramayana,
Katha Sagar,
Param Veer Chakra,
Shaktimaan (Dont know how i forgot that),
Yes Boss,
Capt. Vyom,
Laapataganj
P.P.S : Do follow the show "Pradhanmantri"

 

[911]

Sarabhai vs Sarabhai

Amazing sitcom loved it.

 

[navtrek]

The English term is from Greek Ἰνδία (Indía), via Latin India.

The name India was known in Old English, and was used in King Alfred's translation of Orosius. In Middle English, the name was, under French influence, replaced by Ynde or Inde, which entered Early Modern English as Indie. The name India then came back to English usage from the 17th century onwards, and may be due to the influence of Latin, or Spanish or Portuguese.

Source: Names of India

Do you realize that this information that you are quoting as reference itself is contradicting the statement that you are using it to support ?

 

[Red Wolf]

IFFFF the term India was made famous by BRITISHERS then either CHRISTOPHER COLOMBUS was a BRITISHER, or if your statements were true he would have named the native Americans HINDUS.

Columbus didn’t call the natives "Indians". He called the natives "Indios", the Spanish word for people who live on a chain of islands — in this case, the Indies. English explorers later took this Spanish word and Anglicized it to Indian. Common mistake.

Do you realize that this information that you are quoting as reference itself is contradicting the statement that you are using it to support ?

Indus is an important river system for north India even today. By the Indus Waters Treaty nearly half the river belongs to India. A large chunk of Punjab is fed by its tributaries. Thus, India can legitimately use the name of Indus.

If India cannot be named after Indus, why cannot the same logic be used against King Bharata? After all, he was not the only great king of India and we don't even have historical evidence to his reign. He was neither a character in Ramayana or Mahabharata. He was not a Rig Vedic god. In what way naming after him will make ours more Indian that what are now. Indonesia doesn't even have the Indus river running, but still stick to the name because of its significance.

Why Indus make a much better sense for India's name?

1. The root word from India comes from the Sanskrit word Sindhu that was modified a bit by the Persians to become Hindh and later stylized by the Greeks to become India. It is thus a nexus of 3 great civilizations. That aptly reflects Indian culture too. The core is the Sanskruti, enhanced by the Persian interactions and later built on by the Europeans. Like it or not, we are a mix of all 3.
2. Indus is where the greatest of Indian civilization rose. Whether you are left or right, "Aryan" or "Dravidian" fact is no Indian group disagrees that Indus Valley Civilization is the iconic age for India.
3. Indus acts as the westernmost boundary for the Indian culture. For thousands of years, the river protected India from external threats. Like the Himalayas it acts as the wall of India, mightily protecting the culture. Persians called us Hindus because the people on the eastern side of the Indus had been evolving a distinct culture. This distinction continues to this day - marking the rough borders between West and South Asia.
4. It is the banks of Indus, did our ancients create Universities such as Takshashilawhere some of the greatest Indians like Chanakya, Panini and Charaka taught 2300 years ago.
5. India is the name Greeks glorified in works like Arrian's Indica. India was the country Columbus claimed he was sailing to. India was the root word for Indonesia, our cultural sibling. India is the only country with an ocean named after it. The word India has superior historical importance and symbolism. This is why Jinnah hoped so much that post-1947 India would call herself Hindustan and not India.

The word "Indus" is the romanised form of the Greek word "Indós". If you're going nationalist, at least go local.

 

[Indos]

Columbus didn’t call the natives "Indians". He called the natives "Indios", the Spanish word for people who live on a chain of islands — in this case, the Indies. English explorers later took this Spanish word and Anglicized it to Indian. Common mistake.
The word "Indus" is the romanised form of the Greek word "Indós". If you're going nationalist, at least go local.

Yah, actually Indonesia is the place that Columbus try to seek, this is the only place in the world to find spices which is so expensive in Europe during that time, which is very important to preserve foods. And it is Indonesian who live in a chain of islands, the largest archipelago in the world.

Indonesia is called Nusantara or a chain of islands by our people since ancient time.