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^^Hindd derived from Hindu
Indic does mean Bharat, though I have doubt Pakistanis are either Indic/Bharatiya.
---------- Post added at 05:42 PM ---------- Previous post was at 05:39 PM ----------
The British did not name it India but much earlier it was named after Indus aka 'India'. Do not forget 250 BC Greek traveler's book about India, "the Indica". Arab called it 'Hind' which is derived from Sindh.
Indic does mean Bharat, though I have doubt Pakistanis are either Indic/Bharatiya.
---------- Post added at 05:42 PM ---------- Previous post was at 05:39 PM ----------
The British did not name it India but much earlier it was named after Indus aka 'India'. Do not forget 250 BC Greek traveler's book about India, "the Indica". Arab called it 'Hind' which is derived from Sindh.
Not so, India was always equal to Bharat. The land known to the foreigners mostly as 'India' while to natives it was 'Bharat/Hindustan'.India and Bharat maybe the same thing now, but 60 or 70 years back , both terms had different impact. Bharat meant the Hindu, India meant the British colony. India is anglicized, while bharat is referring to Hindu.
Indus valley civilization was part of Bharat, then why I need to refer it? Have not you seen the early (Vedic) maps of India/Bharat?I said the same thing. India is from Indus. So, if you are saying Indic( again, if such a word exists), you are referring to Indus Valley Civilization, not bharat!!
loool No comment! If you think Indic does not mean Indian then I rest my case.
Did you deliberately missed the second last line?
India comes from Indus, Indic( if such a word exists) , is an extension of India.
So, India comes from Indus, Indic comes from India.
Bharat and India were different things 100 years ago.
now you people are getting off topic and proving the point that India= Bharat.
One member said that pakistanis were Indic and hence Same as you people. What i am saying is that the Indic population was from the Indus valley civilization, and hence not same as bharatis!!.
Bye Bye.
What verse in the Quran makes such actions 'illegitimate'?can you please give a reference to a hadith or a verse which make shrines and looking after it (like it is done in Pakistan) legitimate in Islam?
Arab called it 'Hind' which is derived from Sindh.
What verse in the Quran makes such actions 'illegitimate'?
Does it not boil down to a matter of interpretation? And what business is it of yours or anyone else if some/many Muslims choose to pray at these shrines?
I remember reading somwhere that around 7th century there were two main nations in what is now India and Pakistan called al sindh and al hind in arabic السند و الهند.
So hind is not derived form sindh.
It is not 'Arabization' or the lack of it that will make 'Pakistani society become more liberal', it is focus on specifics - intolerance and lack of respect for difference of belief - that will bring about change.Look, this is legitimate- we cannot be in a position to imagine that no fingers are pointing towards us. What we can do is to make our case - - I would again offer that what you are seeing and experiencing is a ripple of social change - aspects of Pakistani society will become even more liberal, and aspects even more insular - both of these responses are leading to a clash, in fact TTP are a reflection of this clash, a tip of the iceberg if you will - and I think a more insular Pakistan is one that will not be allowed to survive, it will be a grave danger to itself and others.