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Any questions Regarding India

Aurangzeb - THAT is the only example Indians HAVE been giving...so just because 1 was not as you wanted him to be ALL are bad? Interesting!

And so? Instead of scoring little points about Indians on this forum whose comments outrun their information, why don't you look up the books for your own self? You will find that bigotry started increasing from Jehangir himself, worsened under Shah Jahan, and reached a peak under Aurangzeb. Just because most Indians are not students of history, and just because
Aurangzeb happens to be the name most quoted, it is strange to build a convoluted chain of logic stating that one of the emperors is named as a bigot, so it is unfair to denigrate the whole lot of them. The whole lot of them were awful in this regard, with the single exception of Akbar. Only one of them is remembered in this connection because people don't know any better, and don't go about checking which Mughals they should hate.

Your comments are all of the type where a person goes looking through every post for something negative and nasty that she can pull out. That doesn't do much for a discussion. Assuming that you wanted one in the first place.

Oh nothing much just a few architecture...a little difference to your food and maybe better manners than Asoka (who literally lived like a barbarian)?

I have seldom read a more ridiculous statement. Read Megasthenes and find out the facts for yourself.
 
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Good for you! But do you speak for WHOLE of India?! Like you said, you started of with your introduction as S. Indian!


Brilliant! Obviously someone from the Oxford Union come to teach us nigger Indians how to argue.

I am an east Indian and my food has very, very little to do with Mughal food.

You'll get the same answer, genius, if you go to the west of India. It's only north India, from the Punjab to Oudh, to Lucknow and urban pockets in Oudh, that has food habits that can broadly be described as Mughlai. Even there, it co-exists with many other styles, and does not dominate.

It is only in British restaurants run by seamen from a particular part of a neighboring country, people who have not a clue about Indian food, that you get the impression that faux-Mughlai is the only Indian food and nothing but this exists.

O forgot, Indians in general did not learn that bit...Like where you address your mother as tu we say aap! and so on!


A very classy and well-informed summation of social customs under the Mauryas. This could qualify for a PhD.
 
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weird that you call them "looters", "ugly @ss" etc etc. but wasn't india progressing in arts,culture and everything under them so much so that the british wished to come over and take over. and if india was the land of mlik and honey then surely no one was poor in india back then??? how can that be the case?

anyways back to the point either muslim rulers extracted jizya and hence couldn't force convertion or forced conversion and never took jaziya. they couldn't clearly bring all "evils" could they?

Again, very intelligent question.

Since you evidently know so much about the subject, did you happen to notice what the British wanted to take over? They wanted the business and trade centres, the rich parts: Surat and Cambay, the Coromandel Coast, the ports of Bengal. It wasn't the whole of India that they came for, it was precisely those parts that the Mughals hadn't got under their grip, fortunately. The very same bits that the Sultanate earlier had missed out on. They expanded to the Mughal power centres last of all, after protecting their trading activities against the Mysore state, the Marathas and the provincial rulers of Bengal and the Carnatic.
 
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Brilliant! Obviously someone from the Oxford Union come to teach us nigger Indians how to argue.

I am an east Indian and my food has very, very little to do with Mughal food.

You'll get the same answer, genius, if you go to the west of India. It's only north India, from the Punjab to Oudh, to Lucknow and urban pockets in Oudh, that has food habits that can broadly be described as Mughlai. Even there, it co-exists with many other styles, and does not dominate.

It is only in British restaurants run by seamen from a particular part of a neighboring country, people who have not a clue about Indian food, that you get the impression that faux-Mughlai is the only Indian food and nothing but this exists.




A very classy and well-informed summation of social customs under the Mauryas. This could qualify for a PhD.

Atleast one post I agree with of yours. keep it up:tup:
 
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Atleast one post I agree with of yours. keep it up:tup:

Thank you, but I tend to be caustic about mistakes in facts irrespective of where these mistakes originate. At the moment, I am holding back with great effort from pointing out some of the silly mistakes made by Indian posters, only because I don't want to distract attention.

For a more balanced account than mine, read Bang Galore.
 
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NO i don't want you to pull up property records of 300 years ago i just want you to back up your own claims of hindu kicked out and land given by tipu sultan to muslims of the area you can't just calim something and not back it up with a fact! that is just childish!

ok so according to you some were forced to convert and some converted for money BUT ABSOLUTELY NONE CONVERTED BECAUSE THEY SAW ISLAM AS CORRECT?????


moghul art is musem piece yes but the architecture and art and food is associated with india. ofcourse that is why india promotes it as a tourism thing isn't it? so you personally can hate the art and culture and buildings but that is what people associate with indian culture ask any non desi.

lastly you just claimed tipu sultan forced people to convert but then you followed it up in your next post saying i don't know about tipu sultan.

Must we have to choose between two extreme views, both equally unbalanced?

The people of Kerala and the people of east Bengal were among the first to convert to Islam; among the first, because such conversions were a continuous process, one which continues even today.

There were Muslims in Kerala and the Konkan Coast long before Mohammad bin Qasim came to Sindh; the first mosques belong to the Konkan, not to Sindh. These were not conversions by force, but most probably descendants of Muslim traders who settled in the area. Bengal converted largely in the 13th and 14th centuries. There had been a period of Hindu oppression immediately before, and the preaching of Arab missionaries found fertile ground. The numbers as a proportion seem to have grown right through the period from then till now, largely because demographic growth was different between the poor and the relatively less poor.

North India was a different case. It saw some of the most barbaric, savage instances of conversion. By all accounts, the Ghaznavid and Ghurid may have displayed wonderful manners, as one of the posters has hinted, but they slaughtered and killed on a large scale, a legacy maintained by their successors.

The question arises why such large Numbers of Hindus are still to be found. The answer lies in the numbers. Today, after migration during partition, there are approximately 15% Muslims in the population. Before partition, it appears that the numbers were closer to 25%.

If 25% is the number of (migrants and their descendants) + (converts and their descendants), then obviously the number of migrants must have been less than 25%. we can assume that they converted a smaller than they were themselves, an equal number or a larger number. If they converted an equal number, they must have been around 10 to 12% of the original population.

However, it is unlikely that they were ever as high as 10% of the population, for reasons that will be apparent below.

Now look at the distribution of the population. India was never an urban Civilisation after the IVC, and it is likely that this was more or less a village-based Civilisation. Around 90% would have lived in the villages, if today's highly urbanized cross-section is an index. So we have most of the migrant Muslims in the cities and towns, and most of the indigenous population in the villages, to start with, at any rate.

If the number of migrating Muslims was as high as 10%, and they were all in the towns and cities, they would have been the only occupants of these towns and cities! Clearly an absurd opposition. It seems logical to conclude that the numbers of migrants were as low as perhaps 5% of the original population, and that even that is excessive.

How much of the original population could a ruling elite of less than 5% convert, with all the bloodshed and coercion taken into account? Or with all the earnest and sincere efforts of the preachers taken into account?

It was this, and not an absence of coercive measures, that preserved the proportions as they are. This, and the two facts that no mass migrations took place, as in Turkey, or in parts of north Africa; and the amount of time at their disposal was around 800 years, nearly 50% less than that in other parts of the world.

Finally, Muslim rule extended to only north India until fairly late in the day; the Bahmani Kingdom was founded in 1347, and lasted about 150 years, giving birth even in its death to the successor kingdoms, one being the precursor of Hyderabad. The south was relatively less affected by conversion than the north.
 
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:suicide::suicide::suicide:

It's a script, not a religion. It is Nagari script. Derived from Brahmi, which may have had some inspiration from other scripts of that period 2,200 years ago. Buddhists and Hindus used it, and Ashoka's pillar edicts were largely written in it. Nothing particularly Hindu about it.

Since you are so obviously brought up outside the sub-continent :azn:, you are possibly making a mistake and think that Hindu and Hindi are one and the same.

They are not.
 
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So it means Hinduism is not a real religion, if it doesnt emphasize on what it teaches...


Whatever man...If it produces less bigotry of the type you so happily demonstrate , that alone would be reason to cheer it on. The world is in trouble because too many people take their religious teachings seriously, not because they don't.

EzioAltaïr;3423306 said:
Ever heard the word "tolerance"?

Yeah he thinks if someone doesn't kill everyone of a different religion, they are tolerant..:)
 
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:suicide::suicide::suicide:

It's a script, not a religion. It is Nagari script. Derived from Brahmi, which may have had some inspiration from other scripts of that period 2,200 years ago. Buddhists and Hindus used it, and Ashoka's pillar edicts were largely written in it. Nothing particularly Hindu about it.

Since you are so obviously brought up outside the sub-continent :azn:, you are possibly making a mistake and think that Hindu and Hindi are one and the same.

They are not.

Sub continent is Pakistan anyways, which Muslim use Hindi script?? :disagree: none. we use persianized script while hindus use dravidian script... so obviosuly I will say Hindu script
 
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Sub continent is Pakistan anyways, which Muslim use Hindi script?? :disagree: none. we use persianized script while hindus use dravidian script... so obviosuly I will say Hindu script

bengali muslims I belive use bengali script which is like hindi.
 
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Sub continent is Pakistan anyways,

Why just the Sub continent?
which Muslim use Hindi script?? :disagree: none. we use persianized script while hindus use dravidian script...

Dravidian? Guess when you reply, you don't bother reading the comment that you quote, in this case JS's

so obviosuly I will say Hindu script

Yes obviously !

Bengali Muslims are not majority

Err... tell that to the Bangladeshis.
 
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Sub continent is Pakistan anyways, which Muslim use Hindi script?? :disagree: none. we use persianized script while hindus use dravidian script... so obviosuly I will say Hindu script

:suicide2: :suicide2: Mr. genius..you probably use the modern English script more than any other.Now does that make you a Christian ? Is it a necessity that people belonging to one religion will use only one script?

The Quran is written in Arabic.Now do we call it a Muslim language? No... its still ARABIC .....Why hell bent on playing the devil's advocate ?
 
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Why just the Sub continent?


Dravidian? Guess when you reply, you don't bother reading the comment that you quote, in this case JS's



Yes obviously !



Err... tell that to the Bangladeshis.

Bangladeshis are not majority... Majority of Muslims in sub-continent use persianized script

Dravidian? Guess when you reply, you don't bother reading the comment that you quote, in this case JS's

Sorry, Indus Valley Civilization script ;)
 
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Sub continent is Pakistan anyways, which Muslim use Hindi script?? :disagree: none. we use persianized script while hindus use dravidian script... so obviosuly I will say Hindu script

Dravidian script?

Where on earth did you get that? There isn't anything called Dravidian script.

Most Muslims in south India know and use their local script, not Arabic, or Persianised Arabic. Look up Vaikom Mohammed Basheer.
 
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