p(-)0ENiX
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The dispute was over vocabulary, lingua franca is still the same. It was the dispute of Hindus or Muslims of North India, did you ever saw such dispute among Sindhis or Bengalis or Punjabis(except Gurumukhi vs Shahmukhi).
Did the people who develop Urdu claim it as belonging to everyone in the Sub-Continent?
How come Muslims of UP or Delhi preferring Urdu and Hindus Hindi made Urdu the language of Punjabis Muslims or Bengali Muslims or Tamil Muslims.
If Urdu was chosen as the language of the Muslims of the Sub-Continent, then all Muslims have some claim over it. The question is, wasn't it the collective Muslims of the Sub-Continent that chose that language for themselves?
You had your own choice with Sikhs over Shakmukhi Script doesn't mean that West Punjabi and poems of Bulleh Shah became heritage of all Muslims of subcontinent.
You are referring to the fact that Pakistani & Indian Punjabi use a different script right? Who cares?
As for the poet you referred to, the example you gave isn't good. As far as I know, he was a Punjabi poet, thus all the people of Punjab even from the Indian portion of Punjab have some claim to it.
Some Muslims might take pride in the fact that the poet was a Muslim, but this does not mean that they have claimed the Punjabi heritage.
The Arab invaders forced the people to disown their own language like Coptic or Tamazhiq and start speaking Arabic.
So from your perspective, Arabic isn't the language of the Egyptians?