why south asia was invaded so easily?

[navtrek]

why is that south asia was always invaded and conquered so easily by others? eventhough the invaders usually were much smaller in numbers then the local south asians, what are the exact reasons for this?

Is it because south asia has always been a divided society because of the hindu caste system? and invaders took advantage of this? give me reasons?

Maratha Empire ruled much of India following the decline of the Mughals. The long and futile war bankrupted one of the most powerful empires in the world. Mountstart Elphinstone termed this a demoralizing period for the Mussalmans as many of them lost the will to fight against the Maratha Empire.

In northwest India, in the Punjab, Sikhs developed themselves into a powerful force under the authority of twelve Misls. By 1801, Ranjit Singh captured Lahore and threw off the Afghan yoke from North West India.[33] In Afghanistan Zaman Shah Durrani was defeated by powerful Barakzai chief Fateh Khan who appointed Mahmud Shah Durrani as the new ruler of Afghanistan and appointed himself as Wazir of Afghanistan.[34] Sikhs however were now superior to the Afghans and started to annex Afghan provinces. The biggest victory of the Sikh Empire over the Durrani Empire came in the Battle of Attock fought in 1813 between Sikh and Wazir of Afghanistan Fateh Khan and his younger brother Dost Mohammad Khan. The Afghans were routed by the Sikh army and the Afghans lost over 9,000 soldiers in this battle. Dost Mohammad was seriously injured whereas his brother Wazir Fateh Khan fled back to Kabul fearing that his brother was dead.[35] In 1818 they slaughtered Afghans and Muslims in trading city of Multan killing Afghan governor Nawab Muzzafar Khan and five of his sons in the Siege of Multan.[36] In 1819 the last Indian Province of Kashmir was conquered by Sikhs who registered another crushing victory over weak Afghan General Jabbar Khan.[37] The Koh-i-Noor diamond was also taken by Maharaja Ranjit Singh in 1814. In 1823 a Sikh Army routed Dost Mohammad Khan the Sultan of Afghanistan and his brother Azim Khan at Naushera (Near Peshawar). By 1834 the Sikh Empire extended up to the Khyber Pass. Hari Singh Nalwa the Sikh general remained the governor of Khyber Agency till his death in 1837. He consolidated Sikh hold in tribal provinces. The northernmost Indian territories of Gilgit, Baltistan and Ladakh was annexed between 1831-1840.

In the end we fought back and they lost but by then the British had entered the scenes.

 

[KingMamba]

Both maps are inaccurate.

Had these been true -

i. Shivaji and the Maratha empire(for example, there were others) would not have existed
ii. The princely states would not have been in place

The Maratha empire started out from a rebellion within the Mughal empire where they managed to capture land and proceed from there, the princely states were autonomous but were a part of the larger British India.

 

[SarthakGanguly]

The Maratha empire started out from a rebellion within the Mughal empire where they managed to capture land and proceed from there, the princely states were autonomous but were a part of the larger British India.

May I quote sources and smash your half baked imaginary ideas into the trash can or shall I flush it down the toilet?

 

[KingMamba]

May I quote sources and smash your half baked imaginary ideas into the trash can or shall I flush it down the toilet?

If I am wrong about the Marathas feel free to correct me but as for the princely states I maintain what I said, after the 1857 rebellion all of British India was considered as one unit and swore allegiance to the British crown which reigned as emperor.

 

[SarthakGanguly]

If I am wrong about the Marathas feel free to correct me but as for the princely states I maintain what I said, after the 1857 rebellion all of British India was considered as one unit and swore allegiance to the British crown which reigned as emperor.

From the horses mouth -

"(4.) The expression "British India" shall mean all territories and places within Her Majesty's dominions which are for the time being governed by Her Majesty through the Governor-General of India or through any governor or other officer subordinate to the Governor-General of India.
(5.) The expression "India" shall mean British India together with any territories of any native prince or chief under the suzerainty of Her Majesty exercised through the Governor-General of India, or through any governor or other officer subordinate to the Governor-General of India." - Source : Interpretation Act 1889 (52 & 53 Vict. c. 63), s. 18

First 'Maratha gains' -
"In 1645, the 16 year old Shivaji bribed or persuaded the Bijapuri commander of the Torna Fort, Inayat Khan, to hand over the possession of the fort to him." - Sources -
i. Sarkar, Jadunath (1992). Shivaji and his times (5 ed.). Orient Longman. ISBN 81-250-1347-4.,
ii. Stewart Gordon (16 September 1993). The Marathas 1600-1818. Cambridge University Press. ISBN 978-0-521-26883-7. Retrieved 13 October 2012.