Source the claim of 'entirely'. Give references.
History 101 for you, so that you stop acting dumb and proving your ineptitude:
Read about the Battles between Tang Dynasty and the Abbasid Caliphate. The loss of the CARs to the Islamists between 651 to 751 AD. The present day states of CARs were very much a part of the Tang Dynasty.
The Mongol Invasion of China and conquest 1209 AD onwards.
and the Occupation of China by Czarist Russia, US, Great Britain, Japan, Germany during and after the Opium Wars.
Read kiddo
Apart of making personalised remarks and generalised rubbish, not one worthwhile post by you. Seems a man of shallow intellect. Ignorance is a bliss, ain't it? Climactic after posting another useless troll post, are you?
PS: If you are avoiding your 'humiliation' by ignoring the facts of your history, it is understandable! But then have the shame to own up your own heritage before ridiculing others as your own country suffered exactly as did India. Both India and China suffered the humiliation of subjugation at various times of their histories. But both absorbed the Foreigners and the concept of a united nation continued for them.
Concept of Bharat was there (the present day India) similarly, concept of China remained. It is only the baggage of History - that the British tried to undermine the existence of India as an entity, as the existence of a lose confederation always existed, precisely like China.
I know. I get that most of them have the misplaced concept of their country wherein suddenly Outer Mongolia and Inner Mongolia are now 'vassal' and 'independent'.
Funnily, they captured these zones much before Xinjiang and Tibet, and yet, since they got their rears whupped directly/indirectly at the hands of Czarist Russia and then USSR, they shut up and expanded only Westwards into Xinjiang and southwards into Tibet.
Had Indians invaded Tibet and not tried to make peace with Communist China in 1950, things would have been very different.