The Welsh and English comparison is clumsy, but lets entertain it for a moment. Where did you think all the Welsh coal went? Did the money get spent in Wales? Perhaps Yorskhire should be asking for it's share of the profits Britain made from using/selling it's coal. Scotish oil is another example. Scotland doesn't get all the money from that - yet it's clearly not as wealthy as SE England. How about the steel in Wales, Sheffield etc - exported all over the world, yet you don't see Sheffield as Dubai or Singapore.
In nations the wealth is placed in the hands of government and spent where required, or where the government sees fit. You get to change that at the ballot box. In third world countries, sometimes you don't get to do that either. Bangladeshis who justified a civil war and the creation of another state from 1 based on the context of supression of democracy, are today in this very thread making excuses for Hasina's quashing of democracy for a sense of the greater good.
Sometimes you have to look beyond the bias.
Scotland as a direct result of the Barnett formula has been getting higher public spending for decades than England.
Yes Scotland's oil went to mostly England(as England has 10 times more pop whereas BD was more populous than Pakistan) but the English spend around 10% more on public services on Scotland than in England and they keep doing it even today. As a direct result of this the gap between England and Scotland in gdp per capita is pretty much zero now.
Pakistan spent less on public services in BD than in Pakistan during 1947-1971. BD in fact should have been getting more money to spend on infrastructure and public services to lessen the gap between the two wings but it actually increased from 1947-1971!
LOL at bringing in Yorkshire that is part of England and not a separate nation like Wales and Scotland!
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