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In historical times a Pathan was no longer regarded as Pathan once he crossed the three Khaibar, Bolan and Gulan pass. It was more so when he crossed attock. He became a Hindustani. The words India or Hindustan are interchangeable and the British did not invent India.
Probably reading Megasthenes will let you know about the name of India during the time of Alexander.
The word India was used by Greeks to refer to the lands where Indus flows, which is modern day Pakistan in its entirety. They actual terminology was Indika, driven from Sanskrit word Sindhu = Indus River. Alexander's army never crossed over from Indika (modern day Pakistan) into what is now Bharat (using this terminology for distinction sake). Even the Greeko-Bactrians and Indo-Greeks seldom marched beyond the lands of Indus.
When Darius-I of Achaemenid empire conquered the Indus basin he further twisted the words Indus/Sindhu to Hindus or Hindush and added 'stan' to it, thus Indus/Sindhu became Hindustan.
The Arabs made a slight variation. They used the term Hind-wa-Sindh as mentioned in Chachnama, with Sindh encompassing Sindh pronvince+South Punjab/Siraki belt+large chunks of Balochistan, and Hind being regions around Sindh. Much like the Greeks and Persians the Arab armies limited their operations to Sindh & Hind (modern day Pakistan). They seldom crossed over, if ever.
Based on the above, Pakistan is the actual India and Hindustan. Modern day India is neither India/Indika/Sindhu nor Hindustan. The largely unified state of India that exists today only came to be under the British. Thus, going by this logic, Bangladeshis can be Bharatis but not Indians or Hindustanis. On the other hand, after fighting Pakistan both politically and militarily to preserve their identity Bangladeshis suddenly want to give it up for becoming Bharatis? (I am asking this out of genuine curiosity. No malice or sarcasm intended).
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