Persians were first attested in history merely 2800 years ago by the Semitic Assyrian Empire. An Iranian entity first emerged around that time too.
There are tons of MUCH older civilizations in the Arab world (Iran is a newcomer in this regard) let alone the IVC. Your claims are absolutely hilarious and historically false.
Your whole post is false based upon a lack of understanding of genetics. I saw you making the same mistake in another thread but that thread got locked or deleted so here I am posting this.
Persian identity or Medes Identity came to Iran from From Yamnaya some 2800 years ago and created empires but that does not mean there were no people in Iran at that time. A significant portion of Iranian genetics to this day come from Iranian Hunter-Gatherers (~20000 years old samples have been found) and their later descendants Neolithic Farmers (Iran_N). These are not just ancestors of Iranian but entire Central Asia, the Northern part of South Asia, and Anatolia as well. Let alone that, Iran_N is found among Some Europeans as well.
Iranian Neolithic farmers (Iran_N recognized in the genetics world) were a mixture of Iranian Hunter-Gatherers (Sample:
Ganj Dareh) + Anatolian Farmers (ANF) from NW of Iran and Anatolia. Although they both came from the same prehistoric lineage. The proportions may vary based upon locations e.g. some samples show 70-80 % Anatolian lineage in NW of Iran (Sample:
Haji Peroze), Azerbaijan, and Anatolia while those in Sistan and Balochistan were 70-80% Iran_N Heavy (Sample:
Teppe Hisar). This same Iran_N later moved/invaded south Asia and mixed with Austrailoid content in India to create IVC.
This is not my opinion this is based upon the works of SJR registered, high impact factor, published research articles from the world’s leading universities top-notch bio geneticists, and anthropologists of the western world who recognize this Iranian Neolithic farmer Iran_N migrations and their resultant civilizations like Elam (Iran) and IVC (North India). Here we go.
1) REFERENCE 1 "The Near-Eastern Roots of the Neolithic in South Asia"
DOI: https://doi.org/10.1371/journal.pone.0095714
Autosomal DNA of Indus valley was nothing but up to 87 % Iranian Neolithic farmers. Rest 13 % came from Austrailoid India (AASI) yes but mostly it was just Iranian farmers (Sample:
Shahre Sokhteh in Balochistan) who started the pastoralist civilization in the Indus basin.
Direct quotations from the published paper
- “analyzing remains from the Indus Valley civilization (of parts of Bronze Age Northwest India and East Pakistan) and "outliers" from surrounding cultures, conclude that the IVC-population was a mixture people related to Iranian herders and ASI”
- “Distance from the Iran (of Indus valley), suggesting a systematic (but not necessarily uniform) spread at an average speed of about 0.65 km/yr”. (Iran_N Migration into south Asia to create IVC confirmed)
- “The only fitting two-way models were mixtures of a group related to herders from the western Zagros mountains of Iran and also to either Andamanese hunter-gatherers".
- “50–98% of the IVC-genome came from people related to early Iranian farmers, and from 2–50% of the IVC-genome came from native South Asian hunter-gatherers sharing a common ancestry with the Andamanese”
- “Those Iranian farmers-related people may have arrived in India before the advent of farming in northern India,[44] and mixed with people related to Indian hunter-gatherers c. 5400 to 3700 BCE, before the advent of the mature IVC”
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REFERENCE 2: "The Genetic Ancestry of Modern Indus Valley Populations from Northwest India"
DOI: https://doi.org/10.1016/j.ajhg.2018.10.022
Iran_N content in modern-day Indo-Pak groups could be as high as 50-60%
In the below plot, the light green part is Iran_N, look at the proportions of Iran_N in Iran, Turkey, Azerbaijan, Armenia (all the nations where Iran_N habitat spread) and look at the extremity in Pakistan and North Indian groups. it tells us that the baseline ancestor of these groups is same i.e. Iran_N.
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How old is Arab Identity?
Arab identity is not some gazillion years old as your trying to make here (why would a Pakistani do that?).
Arabs originated in Syro-Arabic deserts as a group called "ARIBI", earliest recorded 3000 years ago, when they were defeated by an Assyrian army.
"The first written attestation of the ethnonym Arab occurs in an Assyrian inscription of 853 BCE, where Shalmaneser III lists a King Gindibu of mâtu arbâi (Arab land) as among the people he defeated at the Battle of Qarqar"
What you are thinking of as "Arab" here is actually not Arab but Levant_N (
Sample: Natufian) that predates Arab of any kind. Levant_N/Natufians has nothing to do with Arab identity as
Arabs genetically are ~50 % different from Natufians. Not only the autosomal drift, the Natufian majority haplogroup was E1 while the majority Arabian classic Haplo is J1-M267 which tells us they are not the same group but instead a derivative population that went through invasion of the haplogroup.
1) REFERENCE:"Re-analysis of Whole Genome Sequence Data From 279 Ancient Eurasians Reveals Substantial Ancestral Heterogeneity"
DOI: https://doi.org/10.3389%2Ffgene.2018.00268
Direct quotes from paper
- "The Natufian sample consisted of 51.2% Arabian, 21.2% Northern African, 20.9% Western Asian, and 6.8% Omotic ancestry"
Levant_N which contributed to 50 % Arabian genome was not related to Iran_N. "The first farmers of the southern Levant (Israel and Jordan) and Zagros Mountains (Iran) were strongly genetically differentiated"
https://doi.org/10.1126/science.aaf7943
- "In the ancient Iranians, the proportion of Western Asian ancestry doubled through the Iron Age, suggesting gene flow into Iran from the Caucasus rather than the Levant"
By the time Arabs as a group are first time mentioned in 835 BC. Same time, Aryan or Indo-European groups like Persians, and Medes started emerging in NW Iran. So Arab identity is almost equal to Iranian Indo-european identity. Later on Arab identity emerged in Peninsula with added negroid component from Sub Sahara. Btw the only genuine Arabs are peninsulas, rest Arabs are linguistic shifted ones like Levantines who do not genetically cluster with Saudis but cluster with Iranians and Turkish. Look at the Autosomal plots of Syrians or Lebanese above.
When Persian empires emerged, Arabs themselves were staunch allies or vassals of Iranian empires. Here is an Arab General from the Penninsula in the Achaemenid empire army of Iran at Naqshe Rostam. They were good in desert warfare and fought for Persian empires against Byzantines and Romans. It was like the entire Middle East combined was fighting the Europeans who came to grab the land.
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As far as Islam goes, Islam has had a strong presence in Iran for 1400 years by now. This is more than half of the recorded history of Persians and Iran as a concept.
In fact Islam has a greater historical foothold in Iran than in contemporary Pakistan. The idea of Islam being alien to Iran is absolutely hilarious.
That I agree with. Iranian identity goes hand in hand with Islamic identity. It may not be the first or foremost identity but it is an important one. We have been Mullahs for a long long time. Iranians were the major nonarab power behind Abbasids in military, strategy, planning etc. Arabs are middle easterners like us, and even today the staunch family of allies are iran, iraq, syria, lebanon, yemen (mixture of Irano-Turkics, Levant and Penninsulan Arabs). A mixture of middle easterners/west asians/central asians.
Btw you are making the same mistake again. Persians are 54 % of Iran. They are the builders of Iranian empires but they are not the only ones. It's unfair to us non-Persian Iranians to be called Persians because we have our own languages. Its like I start calling Pakistanis as all NW Indic Punjabis because thats the major group there. Iran of the modern era is an Irano-turkic nation pretty similar to Turkey, Afghanistan, and Azerbaijan. We are all a big family by genetics, linguistics, and culture.