Riyadh Haque
BANNED
- Joined
- Jul 4, 2012
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Comparing the foundational ideas of Pakistan & Israel
Israel was created as a homeland for the persecuted Jews of the world. It was argued that being a minority in all countries of the world, the Jews had been reduced to second-class status in political, economic, cultural and social matters. Israel was then created as the one, unique country that would act as a safe haven for all Jews all over the world who faced, or may face, discrimination or persecution.
Similarly, Pakistan was created as a homeland for the Muslims of India. It was argued that being a minority in Unified India, the Muslims would be reduced to second-class status in political, economic, cultural and social matters. Pakistan was then created as the one, unique country that would act as a safe haven for all the Muslims of Unified India who faced, or may face, discrimination or marginalization.
Up to this point, it seems that Pakistan & Israel are quite similar in their Foundational Story (Qarardad-e-Maqasid) or their Raison d'être.
But then the similarity collapses.
For example, even today, Israel absolutely guarantees to all Jews all over the world the immediate and unquestioned right to immigrate to Israel and claim citizenship.
Pakistan, however, quickly closed its borders for the Muslims of India in 1951!
THE SLOGAN OF TWO-NATION THEORY WAS RAISED TO DECEIVE THE ONE HUNDRED MILLION MUSLIMS OF THE SUBCONTINENT - ALTAF HUSSAIN
But what does this mean?
If we close our doors to our fellow Indian-Muslims living in India, then why was Pakistan created? Who are we? Aren't we the same Indian-Muslims for whom Quaid-e-Azam said that he was creating Pakistan? About whom was our Quaid-e-Azam speaking when he said "Muslims of India"?
What would the Quaid have thought if he were to come back and see that we have closed our doors to his fellow Gujarati Muslims living in Hindu-majority Gujarat? What about the suffering of our fellow Indian-Muslims in Tamil Nadu? What about the Bihari Muslims who want to come to Pakistan, where their mother tongue is the National Language? Why do we say "NO" to them?
Yes, I admit that some Muslims may be doing well in India, but yet others may face discrimination at the hands of the Hindutva fanatics. Some may live well in posh areas, but others might be refused housing for being Muslims. Some may be in positions of power, but other face brutal treatment in India's Abu Ghraibs. Some may be well integrated, but others might live in apartheid-like ghettos. Some may be beloved stars, but others might be shunned and despised. Some may be considered National Heroes, but others might be suspected of being terrorists.
But wasn't Pakistan created for precisely this lesser-section amongst Indian Muslims who are downtrodden, oppressed, discriminated, shunned, and treated like outcastes, worse-than-untouchables?
Looking at the Israeli case again, we can see that there are certainly plenty of Jews who live outside Israel (65% of Jews in the world are citizens of states other than Israel). But IF they were very unhappy or downtrodden or felt discriminated-against, they could immediately, unconditionally & automatically emmigrate to Israel, as it is the unique homeland specifically created as a safe-haven for the World's Jews.
So why is Pakistan not like that for India's Muslims for whom it was created as a Safe-Haven? Why do we let our fellow Indian-Muslims trapped in second-class status continue to suffer in India? Why do we not open our doors and our hearts and receive them with open arms? If they were to ask as to why they cannot immigrate to Pakistan when Pakistan was created as a homeland for India's Muslims, what shall we tell them? Did our Quaid lie to them? Or did someone else toss-out his theories upon his death and change the raison d'être of Pakistan? And if so, what is the raison d'être of Pakistan now?
Am I the only one who wonders about this?
I welcome thoughtful comments and opinions. No meaningless vomiting, please. Thank you.
Israel was created as a homeland for the persecuted Jews of the world. It was argued that being a minority in all countries of the world, the Jews had been reduced to second-class status in political, economic, cultural and social matters. Israel was then created as the one, unique country that would act as a safe haven for all Jews all over the world who faced, or may face, discrimination or persecution.
Similarly, Pakistan was created as a homeland for the Muslims of India. It was argued that being a minority in Unified India, the Muslims would be reduced to second-class status in political, economic, cultural and social matters. Pakistan was then created as the one, unique country that would act as a safe haven for all the Muslims of Unified India who faced, or may face, discrimination or marginalization.
Up to this point, it seems that Pakistan & Israel are quite similar in their Foundational Story (Qarardad-e-Maqasid) or their Raison d'être.
But then the similarity collapses.
For example, even today, Israel absolutely guarantees to all Jews all over the world the immediate and unquestioned right to immigrate to Israel and claim citizenship.
Pakistan, however, quickly closed its borders for the Muslims of India in 1951!
THE SLOGAN OF TWO-NATION THEORY WAS RAISED TO DECEIVE THE ONE HUNDRED MILLION MUSLIMS OF THE SUBCONTINENT - ALTAF HUSSAIN
But what does this mean?
If we close our doors to our fellow Indian-Muslims living in India, then why was Pakistan created? Who are we? Aren't we the same Indian-Muslims for whom Quaid-e-Azam said that he was creating Pakistan? About whom was our Quaid-e-Azam speaking when he said "Muslims of India"?
What would the Quaid have thought if he were to come back and see that we have closed our doors to his fellow Gujarati Muslims living in Hindu-majority Gujarat? What about the suffering of our fellow Indian-Muslims in Tamil Nadu? What about the Bihari Muslims who want to come to Pakistan, where their mother tongue is the National Language? Why do we say "NO" to them?
Yes, I admit that some Muslims may be doing well in India, but yet others may face discrimination at the hands of the Hindutva fanatics. Some may live well in posh areas, but others might be refused housing for being Muslims. Some may be in positions of power, but other face brutal treatment in India's Abu Ghraibs. Some may be well integrated, but others might live in apartheid-like ghettos. Some may be beloved stars, but others might be shunned and despised. Some may be considered National Heroes, but others might be suspected of being terrorists.
But wasn't Pakistan created for precisely this lesser-section amongst Indian Muslims who are downtrodden, oppressed, discriminated, shunned, and treated like outcastes, worse-than-untouchables?
Looking at the Israeli case again, we can see that there are certainly plenty of Jews who live outside Israel (65% of Jews in the world are citizens of states other than Israel). But IF they were very unhappy or downtrodden or felt discriminated-against, they could immediately, unconditionally & automatically emmigrate to Israel, as it is the unique homeland specifically created as a safe-haven for the World's Jews.
So why is Pakistan not like that for India's Muslims for whom it was created as a Safe-Haven? Why do we let our fellow Indian-Muslims trapped in second-class status continue to suffer in India? Why do we not open our doors and our hearts and receive them with open arms? If they were to ask as to why they cannot immigrate to Pakistan when Pakistan was created as a homeland for India's Muslims, what shall we tell them? Did our Quaid lie to them? Or did someone else toss-out his theories upon his death and change the raison d'être of Pakistan? And if so, what is the raison d'être of Pakistan now?
Am I the only one who wonders about this?
I welcome thoughtful comments and opinions. No meaningless vomiting, please. Thank you.