Perhaps both of you have misunderstood what I have said. So I'll restate in a different way.
My POV is that there should be a common, mutually acceptable basis for proof. When I say that 'Indian ammo does not mean a thing', that is not necessarily what I believe. It is what I foresee as an Indian response.
In other words, we are likely to get bogged down into minutiae and definitions, where nothing is proof. For either side.
In the spirit of fairness, therefore, both sides - at least here - may need to agree on proof.
The problem is for Indians a toothpast made in Pakistan is proof but weapons made in India is not.
Now as you said if the toothpast can be a proof against Pakistan then a weapon should be stronger candidate for proof against India
And if not then we all should accept that India was doing a psy-ops against Pakistan for last many decades and now Pakistanis have started learning the art too.
If Pakistani weapons in India are 'proof', so is vice versa. If literature is proof, so is the reverse.
Do you see what I'm saying? It should hold true for both sides.
Because, otherwise, instead of talking to each other we will talk at each other. And no one is going to learn anything except confirm our respective prejudices.