Because the Persian civilization had Indus as its border in modern day Pakistan and didn't spread further. Our ancestors from the Indus valley civilization, traded and seeded civilizational structure from the Persians which is why the west of Indus bank is classified as Indo-Persian.
Persian Civilization predates the IVC
IVC and Harappa were our ancestors which handed civilizational structure to other parts of India. The Indo-Aryan migration as it is believed also happened through what today is Pakistan to India.
In turn, IVC is a successor to the Persian civilization which was a successor to the Babylonians.
See your confusion. IVC is a successor to Persian civilization? You are showing a map of the Achaemenids (middle of 6th century BC). and saying its a predecessor to IVC (3500 BC or earlier). That's why I say, seek knowledge, don't fabricate it and bring grave embarrassment to yourself in the process.
Indo Aryan migration theories, the evolutionary timeline of Vedic civilization, the nature of Harappan people's origins, from where/how they migrated to the Indus plains, can all be discussed once you take a cursory glance at the dates and overview of these at least, and not spout rubbish as you did in the rest of your post.
edit: I'll pre empt your further looking at a primary school encyclopaedia then proclaiming some new "facts". The Elamites were somewhat contemporaries or a bit earlier than early Indus valley civilization. They were dark skinned people, unrelated to Persians/Parthians and other Iranic people, who invaded the Iranian plateau about the time Indus valley was in decline and Harrappans were themselves migrating east. Only difference is, Elamite language/culture became all but extinct by the time of the empire posted in your first map, whereas scholars think either a merger, evolution or distinct development of Vedic culture followed IVC in the central Indo-Gangetic plains.
Alexander was Macedonian, the majority of Macedonia is in Greece today hence he is Greek heritage. Hannibal being Turkish now that is a strange one since Carthaginians were Semites and Carthage was in Tunisia making it a part of their heritage. So what was your point exactly?
If you see the ridiculous debates about this, where he was born and spent his days, and the pedantry with which "Macedonian" Slavs argue with Greeks over this, you would understand.
Hannibal is more directed to Aeronut personally, because many Pakistanis claim that as long as preachers/warriors died in Lahore or other areas of present day Pakistan, they are the exclusive heritage of Pakistanis. Hannibal by some accounts died in Gezbe modern Turkey, even though he was born in North Africa. Both examples are intertwined.
Point is, drawing lines on history, like 20th century colonialists did on land, will only lead to confused and ridiculous posts like that of the admin above.