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Motivations behind selecting the name 'India' in 1947

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Ha ha,....
There's no need to go through the history books. Ancient India/sindhu/indus/hindusthan/......(whatever it may be)
spans from so called pakistha and a part of afghanisthan to
kanyakumari.We'll get indications about it from our mythological
books and holy eipcs etc.The name Pakisthan has just 60 yrs of significance and noting to do with that. It's a name of land where
settlers from other parts of world ( who were treated like indians ..by then indians) demanded for partition.It shouldn't be done but ...happened.There's nothing to do with debating over india and pakisthan as it was a single nation.Coming to purushothama....the name itself gives you the indication that he's a hindu..(it's not a religion please)
and india and hindu are interchangeable.But the thing is pakisthanis are not in a position to accept any names in the history which indicates hinduism/culture.
At last what I conclude is....ancient India is the combination of a part of afghanisthan, pakisthan and inida now, myanmar,bangladesh and also tibet and srilanka.....and They follow a lifestyle called Hindu and the outsiders are welcomed anytime with utmost friendliness and they've become part of india in the long run.If you go deep into the history you will find only hindu names .....and after some centuries the other names!!
for this....no need to prove or study historical thing which were written by non.natives of this part.
 
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The first extract is from Plutarch's life of Alexander:


As for the Macedonians, however, their struggle with Porus blunted their courage and stayed their further advance into India. For having had all they could do to repulse an enemy who mustered only twenty thousand infantry and two thousand horse, they violently opposed Alexander when he insisted on crossing the river Ganges also, the width of which, as they learned, was thirty-two furlongs, its depth a hundred fathoms, while its banks on the further side were covered with multitudes of men-at‑arms and horsemen and elephants. For they were told that the kings of the Ganderites[1] and Praesii[2] were awaiting them with eighty thousand horsemen, two hundred thousand footmen, eight thousand chariots, and six thousand fighting elephants. And there was no boasting in these reports. For Androcottus[3], who reigned there not long afterwards, made a present to Seleucus of five hundred elephants, and with an army of six hundred thousand men overran and subdued all India.


[1] Gangaridae: the Greek term for the Ganges Basin;
[2] Prachii: the Greek term for the end of the Ganges Basin, the land of the East, Prachya;
[3] Chandragupta Maurya: corrupted originally to Sandracottus, later in Plutarch to Andracottus.

There's wiki and there's reality. Alexander turned back because his men were exhausted and didn't believe anything existed beyond the Indus. If the treasure was believed to be great enough, they would have carried on. It is true they were battle weary, but that wasn't so important.

The story of Alexander the Great is very familiar to most Indians (at least we think we do). We are taught in history classes that Alexander invaded India in 326 BCE. He fought a fierce battle with King Porus (battle of the Hydaspes River) in modern day Pakistan. Porus was defeated but Alexander spared his life and allowed him to rule the area under his name. Alexander then reached the Beas River in Himachal Pradesh and decided to turn back after his army started revolting (many people in the ancient world including the Greeks also believed that India was the end of the world and it would not make sense to keep advancing).

Story of Alexander the Great and Chandragupta Maurya | India First-Hand
 
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B. Then there are the reports of Megasthenes, ambassador of Seleucus to the Maurya court at Pataliputra, in Bihar approximately on the site of modern Patna, which were rich and detailed in their accounts of India outside the portion that is today Pakistan. He was succeeded by Deimachus and Dionysius, and there was extensive Greek trade with northern India, demonstrated by the widespread availability of Greek pottery remnants of the period throughout northern India.

Pataliputra might even have been in Iran. Are you willing to consider this possibility?

Till date no relic of any Mauryan King including the great Ashoka or the Greeks has been found in Patna. This is true for the Nanda kings who the Mauryans supposedly captured. So where were the Mauryans actually ruling and who is Chandragupta Maurya?

Dr. Ranjit Pal argues that Palibothra of Megasthenes is not Patna of Bihar but Patali (near the city of Kerman in Iran). The names of many Indian cities can also be found in other countries and names like Patali, Konarak, and Salem are good examples (it would be a mistake to assume that these Indian cities are older. It is more likely that Patali (Iran) is much older than Patna (India). The name Patel which is popular among people in Gujarat is likely related to Patali. Gujarat is part of Western India and close to Iran where Patali is).

Story of Alexander the Great and Chandragupta Maurya | India First-Hand

Suddenly things are not so clear, and the evidence seems less contradictory
 
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Astonishing statement, considering the evidence to the contrary. We can only ascribe this to a lamentable lack of exposure to history.

To put it plainly, it is only that your ignorance of the existence of Ancient Bharat, about which you seem to know nothing, that gets in the way of your analysis.

The history of Bharat 2000+ years ago is not very well known, and it wasn't known to the outside world. You suggest that trade routes existed from the sea 3000+ years ago and everyone knew about Bharat. I disagree, I don't believe that was the case at all. It is very clear the Ancient Greeks did not know of Bharat's existence. This is well documented and I can find it for you if you want. If Egypt knew of Bharat's existence even 3,000 years ago, I'd be amazed given the Ancient Greeks did not.
 
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This is just a point of view. Even a popular point of view. As you will know from the example of the worship of tombs and of pirs, a popular point of view is not the theologically correct point of view.

I disagree. All points of view might be correct. A popular point of view is just one most people accept. So the Mahabhaata is a Holy Book, or a Holy Epic.

Neither the Ramayana nor the Mahabharata is a holy book; they are important cultural artefacts, epics, and have tremendous cultural weight. They may even have current religious weight. They obviously have no historical weight, unless supported by independent historical sources, acceptable to professional historians, and in any case, they have no relevance before their dates of composition.

So it's not a Holy Book but it has some religious weight. This looks like a contradiction does it not?
 
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It is a fact that the Indus Civilization which was Ancient Pakistan and which now is modern Pakistan - had trade and contact with other world civilizations, and bharat which Roadrunner so eloquently explained was a largely unknown mysterious and relatively backwater of the region, there are no large cities like Mohenjadaro or Harrapa.

This picture by the Pakistan Navy on a Maritime Patrol Aircraft, shows the sentiment of the Pakistani people regarding their glorious heritage:)

2808601240_61b6bf09b7_o.jpg
 
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A Tamil or Bengali or a person from UP - has no link to the Indus Valley or its people - this claim of it being part of modern india, is simply an attempt at cultural theft. :(
 
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They were Indian, but not modern day Indian. I would say they were famous and great civilizations.

Sir, Since they (Bhartis) choose to recognize themselves from the Indus river, it doesn't means automatically that they actually the people of Indus, are they?

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The name India is derived from Indus, which is derived from the Old Persian word Hindu, from Sanskrit सिन्धु Sindhu, the historic local appellation for the Indus River.[25] The ancient Greeks referred to the Indians as Indoi (Ινδοί), the people of the Indus.
UnQuote.
Wikipedia
 
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How does this refer to India? India today if anything is three-sided in plan. More triangular. Pakistan on the other hand is four-sided with all these features. Also, your quotes are from Wikipedia, which could easily be wrong. What is the link for your "Arrian" quote?

A plain examination of the envoy's quotes is the first part that you need to take up, in case you need clarification.

The second part is to look up maps of India which belong to those times, to the times of Scylax the navigator, of Strabo the geographer, of the unknown author of the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, and of all ancient maps of India. Those were not maps which look as the South Asian peninsula looks today, but maps which distorted the position and the shape of the sub-continent, and which reflected the partial and imperfect knowledge of the Europeans of those times about India.

Unfortunately, as is only to be expected with amateurs unfamiliar with their subject, every piece of evidence available in ancient times is interpreted in the light of modern knowledge, which leads to the misunderstandings and errors in the statements made.

Try again.

You seem to think you've hit upon something amazing here. All your quotes that include geographical modern India as "India" are from around the 1st century AD onwards. Do you know that "Ind" and the Indus were given to the name of ancient Pakistan since 2000 BC? So for 4,000 years people have been referring to Pakistan as India, whilst only 2000 years has India been included with the Ganges. And this being only what foreigners have been saying. Pakistan, or the ancient Pakistani people never agreed to accept you guys as part of the original India or Sindhu.

There was no question of Pakistan or the ancient Pakistani people never agreeing to accept anybody as part of the original India or Sindhu, as there was in fact no Pakistan or ancient Pakistani people to do all this agreeing and accepting. There was not even a name that such an ur-Pakistan called itself. It was certainly not Sindhu; neither the Arachosians or the hillmen or the residents of the Punjab as we know it today called themselves Sindhis, for instance, which presumably they would have done if they had that sense of proto-Pakistani identity that you think they did. Nor did they call themselves Indians; as you yourselves have pointed out in numerous comments, this was a name applied to the entire sub-continent by the Europeans.

There are precedents galore; just at random, the province of Roman Africa donated its name to the entire continent; the province of Asia donated its name to the entire continent, and subsequently, after this extension of the name to the entire land mass lying behind it, came to be known as Asia Minor. In identical fashion, the Iranians referred to the great river as the Hindu, as there is a linguistic rule that names east of the river, derived from the Indo-Aryan branch of the language group Indo-Iranian, used S, and the same names, pronounced by the Iranian side of the language division, changed the S to an H. Thus, Sapta Sindhu, land of the seven rivers, the five of the Punjab plus the dried up Saraswati, plus the Indus, became Hapta Hindu. The Greeks, unable to manage their aspirates, named the Hapta Hindu the Indus, the people Indioi.

The reason for repeating this when it has been said so many times before is to point out that the origin of the name Indus and Indioi was from Greek times. As we already know from history, and not from your personal opinion rooted in a desperate desire to prove what is not provable, the Greeks knew the Persians with the invasion of Greece in 499 BC. It was only when they encountered Indian soldiers with the other provincial soldiers that they realised that that there was more to Persia than Persia and Medea. And it was only when the initial wave of Greeks travelled to the frontier under the auspices of the Persian empire that they realised that there was a vast land behind the great river, and came in due course to name it India, and the inhabitants Indioi, well before Alexander's much advertised march.

It is difficult to understand, among a myriad of other things difficult to understand with your statements, how you get 2,000 years BC as a date for the coinage of Indus and Indioi.

Why on earth name your country after someone elses river? It's like naming your country "Rhineland" even though the Rhine flows through Germany.
Why on earth name your country on what foreigners (who werent very good at geography) called your country?

Unfortunately, the tribes and people bordering the Indus were counted among the Indians by the rest of the world, unaware when they did so how greatly they had offended you in the year 2010.

When we refer to Ancient Indian History, we think of things like the Indus Valley Civilization, or certain Mathematics and Astronomy, or certain other civilizations. All these important parts of Ancient Indian History are not part of modern day India, they are part of modern day Pakistan's history.

The day that universities, learned societies and associations for the advancement of science and learning offer you the privilege of defining what you mean when you refer to ancient India, and of making this definition the one proper definition of the concept, it will be possible to accept your assertions.

Until then, please consult scholars in a department of history in any country which is not busy re-writing its own history, like Pakistan seems to be.

Until then, regrettably, in the eyes of the world at large, Ancient Indian history will continue to be the history of the Indus Valley Civilisation, the Vedic civilisation, the growth of the Mahajanapadas, the rise of Buddhism and Jainism, the growth of Magadha, the Alexandrine invasion of the north-west, the first Indian empire the Maurya Empire, the Sungas, the Saka Pahlavas, the Kushanas, the Satavahanas, the Rastrakutas, the Gupta Empire, the kingdoms of Kanauj, Thanesar and Gauda, the growth of the Rajputs, the tripartite rivalry between Rastrakuta, Pala and Pratihara, the Senas; and in the South, starting from the Satavahanas, the Rastrakutas, the Chozhas, the Chalukyas, the Cheras, the Pandyas, the Vakatakas.

That is as far as politics goes. As far as science and knowledge, or philosophy, mathematics and astronomy, literature, or dance or sculpture is concerned, it is the development of these that people refer to.

The Chinese, ever a clear-headed people, and historical to a fault, called India Shendu - I hope that there is no reason to rub anyone's face in it by explaining what that word was derived fro. When Hiuen Tsang visited India in search of manuscripts, and visited the emperor Sri Harsha, he was never under any illusion that it was anything but Shendu that he was visiting. So too for Fa Hien, and other recorded travellers. Nobody, in fact, had any problem with the name India, or its equivalent extending to the entire country, other than modern-day revisionist historians, revising the vicissitudes of recent military misadventures through the columns of this forum.

You could use this energy to better purpose examining the thesis of Aitzaz Ahsan about the Indus Man, rather than mistakenly chasing the wild goose of the application of the name India mistakenly to 'Bharat' rather than to Pakistan. That horse won't run, except on PakDef; it is recommended that you follow up on the Indus Man.

Indeed the Mauryan Empire did exist, but the powerhouse of the Mauryan Empire was in the northwest of the subcontinent.

Where do you get these concepts from? It is clear that these are from no standard textbook; even one steeped in the most potent intoxicants could not possibly have yielded such de Quincey-like results.

The Mauryan Empire was of Magadhan origin, its soldiery were derived from the Gangetic plains, and it conquered the north-west as a consequence of its confrontations of the failing power of Seleukos. As for its north-west being a power-house, nothing could be further from history; we only have to refer to the records of two distinct, different revolts in Taxila which had to be put down with force to understand that the power-house was hardly in the north-west.

It certainly is something shared between India and Pakistan, but it really is an irrelevant Empire in global history. The Magada certainly did exist, and this was wholly a part of the history of modern day India, and not Pakistan. You can see the pattern here I hope.

It was not in fact shared; Pakistan completely owns the whole of Indian history, being an equal heir of the Indian heritage, just as Bangladesh is. It was not, for example, the Roman empire, or the Empire of Charlemagne, or the Holy Roman Empire, or the Ottoman Empire, to have a sovereignty divisible among several of its constituent units; it was unmistakably an empire based on Magadha, and it lived and died by the power of Magadha.

And Buddhism was developed to a greater extent in what is now Pakistan. Buddhists generally were persecuted in India, but all the important Buddhist Laws and customs came about in the land mass of what is now Pakistan. Swat is one of the most important historical Buddhist centers in the world, and various places in Afghanistan.

This passage is a complete fabrication.

Buddhists were persecuted in India in the earliest times, during the life of the Buddha and intermittently and with decreasing strength thereafter, until the Ashokan adoption of the religion completely overwhelmed the opposition.

Thereafter Buddhism grew and flourished, with brief falls from patronage, which were far from persecution, for instance under the Sungas, and continued strongly until as late as 600 AD. Most of the developments in Buddhism took place in what you apparently refuse to call India any more; the greatest scholar after the Buddha himself was Nagarjuna, from the land of the Andhras. All major development of Buddhist doctrine took place in the great councils and in the monasteries and learning centres, such as that at Nalanda.

Other than the introduction of iconography to India, which was not present before, I am at a loss to understand what you are referring to by stating that all important Buddhist laws and customs were developed in what is present day Pakistan.

Nothing could be further from the truth.
 
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I disagree. All points of view might be correct. A popular point of view is just one most people accept. So the Mahabhaata is a Holy Book, or a Holy Epic.



So it's not a Holy Book but it has some religious weight. This looks like a contradiction does it not?

FYI, I am a Hindu and a devout one at that.

And Joe is on the dot. We dont consider the Mahabharatha as a Holy Book. It is an epic which symbolises the victory of Good over evil and the same can be said about Ramayana.

Infact there are more version of Ramayana than the number of digits in your hand. And all of them agree on only the central idea and differ in details in many places.

Holy scriptures for us include the 4 Vedas( Rig,Yajur,Sama,Atharvana), 108 Upanishads and a host of Puranas like Skanda Purana,Garuda Purana etc.

So leave this point of 'Holy Epic' (whatever that means) and concentrate on other points,if any, to prove Bharat is stealing 'Ancient Pakistan's' 5000 year old history.
 
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There's wiki and there's reality. Alexander turned back because his men were exhausted and didn't believe anything existed beyond the Indus. If the treasure was believed to be great enough, they would have carried on. It is true they were battle weary, but that wasn't so important.

For starters, it wasn't wiki but Plutarch that was quoted. You may have noticed that I have been using my college text books, standard history texts, to answer, rather than wikipedia, the quality of whose sections is frightening.

If you wish, I can cite every single classical authority writing about Alexander to clarify the situation. It is noteworthy that there was not a single contemporary source; all were accounts written after Alexander's death in Babylon.

With regard to the reasons for the Greeks and Macedonians refusing to go further, there is nothing better than to consult the originals. Please consider publishing a single proof (not web-sites written by dubious scholars and hedge professors, please, as has occasionally been done) supporting your personal opinion, and we will go on. Until that point, the view has sadly to be taken that the classical sources cited must stand.

Statements such as If the treasure was believed to be great enough, they would have carried on, and It is true that they were weary but that wasn't important are speculative in the extreme, and represent only your personal opinion.

While I understand, appreciate and sympathise the stand that you have taken, the discovery and promotion of the separate identity of Pakistan, the methods and logic, above all, the facts, regrettably leave much to be desired.

Again, you are urged to consider the better-argued position taken by others: the sub-cultures focussed around the Indus have distinctive qualities and culturally unique features, and it is necessary to study that culture as a whole. If you were to state further that this culture maps largely on to the present territorial extent of Pakistan, there would be a good justification to examine the culture of these several peoples and several locations together, to discover and highlight the common characteristics.

I am afraid that it will be difficult to get much academic support for the thesis under discussion, that Ancient India is actually what is today Pakistan, therefore Ancient Indian history is to be coopted as an integral part of Pakistan's history.

However, until then, I shall try to address every point with all the knowledge and resources available.

The story of Alexander the Great is very familiar to most Indians (at least we think we do). We are taught in history classes that Alexander invaded India in 326 BCE. He fought a fierce battle with King Porus (battle of the Hydaspes River) in modern day Pakistan. Porus was defeated but Alexander spared his life and allowed him to rule the area under his name. Alexander then reached the Beas River in Himachal Pradesh and decided to turn back after his army started revolting (many people in the ancient world including the Greeks also believed that India was the end of the world and it would not make sense to keep advancing).

Story of Alexander the Great and Chandragupta Maurya | India First-Hand

This has already been discussed. Ocean, not India, was considered the end of the world. You cited Herodotus; Herodotus was the father of history; there is no record that the man was the father of geography. His geographical accounts are so garbled as to cause bemusement.

Pataliputra might even have been in Iran. Are you willing to consider this possibility?

Till date no relic of any Mauryan King including the great Ashoka or the Greeks has been found in Patna. This is true for the Nanda kings who the Mauryans supposedly captured. So where were the Mauryans actually ruling and who is Chandragupta Maurya?

Dr. Ranjit Pal argues that Palibothra of Megasthenes is not Patna of Bihar but Patali (near the city of Kerman in Iran). The names of many Indian cities can also be found in other countries and names like Patali, Konarak, and Salem are good examples (it would be a mistake to assume that these Indian cities are older. It is more likely that Patali (Iran) is much older than Patna (India). The name Patel which is popular among people in Gujarat is likely related to Patali. Gujarat is part of Western India and close to Iran where Patali is).

Story of Alexander the Great and Chandragupta Maurya | India First-Hand

Suddenly things are not so clear, and the evidence seems less contradictory

Do try and resist the temptation to cite web-sites, none of which are authoritative, and do try to read up history books related to what you are seeking to establish. There are literally thousands of web-sites purveying this kind of nonsense, and it is a snare and a delusion to fall for their tall claims. I have no idea who Ranjit Pal, and I sincerely do not wish to know; his theories about the different locations of places merely on the basis of coincidence are laughable, and reminiscent of Sangh Parivar publicists who have claimed the whole world at one time or the other, using the apparent similarity or even coincidence of names to buttress their tooth-pick supported claims.

I note with some mirth that the methods of the Sangh Parivar have been adopted by analysts on this forum.

I suppose a brief genuflection in the direction of the 'facts' produced by you is a necessity, at least for the sake of academic courtesies and to maintain appearances.

As you have pointed out, the names of several cities, Konark and Salem among them, but not Pataliputra, occur elsewhere in the world. These are in fact coincidence, as already suggested; the meaning of the Indian names and the meaning of the names found in India and abroad are widely different. Patali and Pataliputra are wholly different, and there can only be a connection founded on main force, not on logic or linguistic connection.

The history of Bharat 2000+ years ago is not very well known, and it wasn't known to the outside world. You suggest that trade routes existed from the sea 3000+ years ago and everyone knew about Bharat. I disagree, I don't believe that was the case at all. It is very clear the Ancient Greeks did not know of Bharat's existence. This is well documented and I can find it for you if you want. If Egypt knew of Bharat's existence even 3,000 years ago, I'd be amazed given the Ancient Greeks did not.

First, let us stop using terms such as 2000+ years ago, and 3000+ years ago, unless it is linked to imprecise broad sweeps of time which cannot be divided into years, decades or centuries.

Second, while trade routes are deemed by prominent authorities to have existed, and there are thought to have been links between the west coast of the south asian peninsula and points on the Arabian peninsula, for instance, with Dilmun, I had never cited them. To say that I have discussed trade routes 3,000+ years ago and claimed knowledge of India and Indian geography 3,000+ is simply inaccurate.

Third, I repeat for the sake of your ready reference: there could have been no reference to 'India', 'Indiou' or 'Indike' before 499 BC. That was when the Greeks and Persians met each other in battle formally, distinct from earlier smaller wars during the Achaemenid conquest of Asia Minor and the Greek cities on its coast line and the immediate hinterland. For a Greek corruption of Hapta Hindu to occur, there must have been a contact between Greek and Persian. Therefore, your argument, that India was known for centuries before Alexander, and that it was an India consisting of only the Indus and its watershed is obviously a fallacy.

Fourth, you should know that current thinking in some historical circles is that the Greek penetration of the Persian Empire may have predated 499, for the reason that as the Persian Empire impinged on the Greek cities of Asia Minor, including the old colonies on the shores of the Euxine, there should have been considerable commerce and trade, and in fact, Alexander had considerable information about the territory that he was penetrating and the tribes that he had to face in the third century BC.

I disagree. There is nothing here which is definite, everything is speculative, and thoughts that trade relations ought to have existed do not stand for proven historical facts.

There is no evidence that the Greeks knew about India before 499 BC.

Fifth, to assert that their use of the name India was for the region of the Indus alone is inaccurate. The details of the writings of Pliny, Diodorus Siculus, Quintius Curtus Rufus and Plutarch have already been cited by an earlier commenter, and it is appropriate merely to refer you back to those comments without repeating them. Clearly, Gangaridae (or Gangaridai), Prasii and the people the Ichthyophagii were known; clearly, India meant the regions east of the Indus and not the watershed of the Indus alone.

Sixth, it is astonishing that in this day and this age, we should confine ourselves only to European references. The question is about the use of the word India, and it is being stated that this was restricted, and only this was restricted to the watershed of the Indus. This is strange logic; if this were so, there should have been identical use of the parallel words Hindu and Sindhu. These, too, should have been used exclusively for the river and its environs.

Such is not the case. I have already mentioned that as early as the second century BC, an exploratory party sent out by the Han court found that there was a southern land called Shendu, below the Da Xia and which obtained goods from the southern Chinese province of Shu (this would be in the southernmost part of China as at present constituted, and bordering the jungles of Burma). The emissary in question was Zhang Qian, a native of Hanzhong, who served as palace attendant during the jianyuan era (140 - 135 BC).

Subsequently, all expeditions, for instance, Xuan Zang (pinyin: the more familiar Wade-Giles version is Hsuan Tsang) and Fa Hien are comfortable describing their travels in Shendu, in Kanauj and Nalanda, among dozens of other locations.

It is not clear if it is being seriously projected that a possible but improbable initial period of confusion is taken as a perpetual license on the name by the present residents of Pakistan. This is such an unlikely prospect for acceptance by the world at large, or by even Pakistanis themselves in the mass, that the point of the entire effort is not quite easy to understand.

One can only assume very large surpluses of available free time, and an absence of more worthwhile objectives in life.
 
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A plain examination of the envoy's quotes is the first part that you need to take up, in case you need clarification.

The second part is to look up maps of India which belong to those times, to the times of Scylax the navigator, of Strabo the geographer, of the unknown author of the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, and of all ancient maps of India. Those were not maps which look as the South Asian peninsula looks today, but maps which distorted the position and the shape of the sub-continent, and which reflected the partial and imperfect knowledge of the Europeans of those times about India.

Unfortunately, as is only to be expected with amateurs unfamiliar with their subject, every piece of evidence available in ancient times is interpreted in the light of modern knowledge, which leads to the misunderstandings and errors in the statements made.

Try again.

Bits of modern day India may have been discovered by the Ancient Greeks during the time of Megasthenes. I would not say that that quote clearly demonstrates this. But even if it was referring to the whole of modern day India, I've taken this into account when I say that Ancient India from 2,000 to 5,000 years ago referred exclusively to Pakistan. By about 2,000 years ago the land region of modern day India was being discovered slightly more. The land region of modern day Pakistan was well known to the outside world, and reported extensively by the Greeks.

Do you agree that during the time of Herodotus, the Ancient Greeks did not know about the land of modern day India?
 
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There was no question of Pakistan or the ancient Pakistani people never agreeing to accept anybody as part of the original India or Sindhu, as there was in fact no Pakistan or ancient Pakistani people to do all this agreeing and accepting. There was not even a name that such an ur-Pakistan called itself. It was certainly not Sindhu; neither the Arachosians or the hillmen or the residents of the Punjab as we know it today called themselves Sindhis, for instance, which presumably they would have done if they had that sense of proto-Pakistani identity that you think they did. Nor did they call themselves Indians; as you yourselves have pointed out in numerous comments, this was a name applied to the entire sub-continent by the Europeans.

Well this is so basic it's not worth comment really. Pakistan was known by various names, Saptha Sindhu, for example. The borders of Saptha Sindhu were not necessarily corresponding to any modern borders. From this comes the name of the Indus, and India.
 
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The reason for repeating this when it has been said so many times before is to point out that the origin of the name Indus and Indioi was from Greek times.

The name of the Indus comes from Rig Vedic times. It was known as the Sindhu even then.

As we already know from history, and not from your personal opinion rooted in a desperate desire to prove what is not provable, the Greeks knew the Persians with the invasion of Greece in 499 BC. It was only when they encountered Indian soldiers with the other provincial soldiers that they realised that that there was more to Persia than Persia and Medea. And it was only when the initial wave of Greeks travelled to the frontier under the auspices of the Persian empire that they realised that there was a vast land behind the great river, and came in due course to name it India, and the inhabitants Indioi, well before Alexander's much advertised march.

Yes, finally you've got it! The Ancient Greeks only realized that the Indus was not the end of terra firma when they crossed to the other side of it. Previously the world knew of the Indus as being the end of the earth. No modern day India, no trade, no civilization until 2,000 years ago. All the civilizations, mathematics, history before 2,000 years ago corresponded to regions outside of modern day India.

Well done for finally realizing this.
 
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Unfortunately, the tribes and people bordering the Indus were counted among the Indians by the rest of the world, unaware when they did so how greatly they had offended you in the year 2010.

They were counted as Indians by the rest of the world, but the people of modern day India were not. About 2,000 years ago, the Ganges and South India are explored. In their laziness, the "rest of the world" call this India as well. But the predominance of reported Indian history, lay in what is now Pakistan.

The day that universities, learned societies and associations for the advancement of science and learning offer you the privilege of defining what you mean when you refer to ancient India, and of making this definition the one proper definition of the concept, it will be possible to accept your assertions.

Until then, please consult scholars in a department of history in any country which is not busy re-writing its own history, like Pakistan seems to be.

Until then, regrettably, in the eyes of the world at large, Ancient Indian history will continue to be the history of the Indus Valley Civilisation, the Vedic civilisation, the growth of the Mahajanapadas, the rise of Buddhism and Jainism, the growth of Magadha, the Alexandrine invasion of the north-west, the first Indian empire the Maurya Empire, the Sungas, the Saka Pahlavas, the Kushanas, the Satavahanas, the Rastrakutas, the Gupta Empire, the kingdoms of Kanauj, Thanesar and Gauda, the growth of the Rajputs, the tripartite rivalry between Rastrakuta, Pala and Pratihara, the Senas; and in the South, starting from the Satavahanas, the Rastrakutas, the Chozhas, the Chalukyas, the Cheras, the Pandyas, the Vakatakas.

Yes, I agree that the rest of the world has simply lumped everything together. Given the use of the world India today, it would be wiser not to refer to these as Indian civilizations, but to seperate them out into Indian and Pakistani civilizations. Up until the 1800s there was no such confusion of course. But as a result of the confusion it would be wiser to refer to them as Pakistani and Indian history. For example, the Magadhas is Indian history, the Indus Valley Civilization is Pakistani history, the Chozahs are Indian history, Gandhara is part Pakistani history and so on. Very simple and clear.
 
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