if you have some comprehension issues, it is your problem not mine. Some document being available in India's museum or online or whereever or presenting it officially to an International forum are entirely two different things. I hope now your understand what was I talking about.
Post-Partition: India still owes Pakistan a little over Rs5.6b, says State Bank – The Express Tribune
Your claim seems absurd because,
As for the Indian notes and coins present in currency chests in Pakistan on June 30, 1948, and the ones encashed during the next fiscal year, Pakistan was supposed to return these to the RBI. Subsequently, the SBP was to claim equivalent assets against these Indian notes and coins from the Reserve Bank of India.
According to historian S Aijaz Husain,
total assets that the government of Pakistan was entitled to receive from the RBI amounted to Rs1.7 billion. However, the SBP received assets worth only Rs1.2 billion.
The difference between the claims and the actual amount surrendered by the RBI was Rs490.8 million. Out of this amount, “India notes representing assets receivable from the RBI” accounted for Rs430.2 million while assets “held with the RBI pending transfer to Pakistan” equalled Rs59 million.
if there were 300 crors, on Pakistan why was not that amount deducted at first place while while transferring assets of 1.2 Billion (instead of 1.7 Billion)?