M. Sarmad
SENIOR MEMBER
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Nil? Maybe in Punjab.
Wasn't Pakistan given the Chittagong Hill Tracts?
And districts in Sindh?
And a part of Assam?
I think Malerkotla in Indian Punjab is still Muslim majority so you skipped that.
Maler Kotla was a princely state. Kapurthala was another Muslim majority princely State in Punjab that went to India. They were not Tehsils of British Punjab.
We are talking about Punjab here
In the east,
The Buddhist majority Chittagong Hill Tracts were given to Pakistan because they were inaccessible to India
Khulna District (52% Hindu) was given to East Pakistan in lieu of Murshidabad district (70% Muslim) which went to India.
Sylhet district of Assam joined Pakistan in accordance with a plebiscite. However, the Karimganj sub-division with a Muslim majority was severed from Sylhet and given to India. As of the 2001 Indian Census, Karimganj still has a Muslim majority of 52.3%.
Division of Sindh was not included in partition plan
A lot of hot air. Sikh were land owners in West Punjab and controlled a lot of the land.
A perspective on who started the violence from a Pak source.
https://nation.com.pk/29-Dec-2014/the-forgotten-massacre
Partition was not carried out on the basis of land ownership. What are you on about?
Your arguments are just confined to Punjab and surrounding regions. But Partition has to do much more than just Punjab. Do read about Direct Action Day by any neutral sources and you will understand why things unfolded in such a sad and ugly manner.
This thread is about Indian Occupied Kashmir. In order to provide India a land access to Kashmir, several Muslim majority Tehsils from the adjoining Punjab province were unfairly transferred to India. That's why the argument about Punjab. Do you get it now?
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