MilSpec
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It is strange how different people can extract different meaning out of the same text.
Here is Article 25.
Quote
25. (1) Subject to public order, morality and health
and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are
equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right
freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
(2) Nothing in this article shall affect the operation
of any existing law or prevent the State from making
any law—
(a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial,
political or other secular activity which may be
associated with religious practice;
(b) providing for social welfare and reform or the
throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a
public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
Explanation I.—The wearing and carrying of kirpans
shall be deemed to be included in the profession of the
Sikh religion.
Explanation II.—In sub-clause (b) of clause (2), the
reference to Hindus shall be construed as including a
reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or
Buddhist religion, and the reference to Hindu religious
institutions shall be construed accordingly
Unquote.
From the explanation I understand that what applies to Hindus will also apply to Sikhs, Jain & Buddhists. You interpret as “Sikhs, Jain & Buddhists are Hindus”. You choice.
Also at @Nassr
The logic of affirmative actions to identify minority was based on social bias against the dalits, christians, muslims etc. Sikhs and jains were not subjected to social marginalization in the history of India, and were considered as offshoots of hindu spectrum, thus tribes and sects (Among sikhs, jains christains and hindus too) were identified as Schedule casts, Schedule tribes, Vimukth Jati(1,2,3), Nomadic tribes (1,2,3) and OBC.
Thus social reforms can reach every individual irrespective of relegions based on the aforementioned reservation catagories, making this the most comprehensive affirmative action in the world with further scope for amendments to include additional sects. For example catholic converts from tribal areas were included in ST categories to provide the needed reservation and upliftment in the society. Same goes for muslims, in the ongoing process, where different commisions are setup by the government to establish the reforms needed to uplift the sections and appropriate actions are taken in by the democratic process.
Now coming back to premise of the two nation theory where most pakistanis believe that muslims in India are subjected to social injustice and devoid of political representation, then on the flip side if India does achive complete social equality for muslims in India along with the aforementioned political representation, Does that render the two nation theory null and void????
Also can someone interject that when the envisaged utopia of muslim political homeland, crushed the constitutional political rights of bengali muslims, were the two nation theory advocates sleeping???