It doesn't. The gap has only increased and is increasing every year. If you are happy that the ratio is less than 2 now, it is an example of pathetic thinking.
It's not pathetic thinking at all. Pathetic thinking is adequately described in your next statement asking me to disprove something which you fictitiously made up about Indian Muslims having a lower "base" than all the other religious groups in India following Partition.
I will provide the reason for why my thinking is not pathetic though. Pakistan had a specific literacy in 1950, specific number of schools, specific GDP, all of which are proven to have been less than India. India had double the literacy of Pakistan. Given this, then India should have been able to educate more of its population faster.
Example, 2 populations, each with 100 people. In the first population, 7% are teachers and are literate. In the second, 15% are teachers and are literate. So, the 7 people in the first population teach classes of 5 students each, and after a decade, 42 people in the population are literate, or 42%. In the second population, 15 people teach classes of 5, and after a decade, 90 people are literate, or 90% of the population. Therefore, one can conclude that the second population should have double the literacy of the first, if they make the same strides in the field of education.
Answer this in a civilized and logical manner please, instead of throwing a tantrum about something being pathetic.
It is up to you to prove that Muslims did not have a lower base. You made the allegation, not me.
You being the one that made the initial allegation that Indian Muslims had the lowest literacy base in 1947 in the first place
You made the allegation. it is there for anyone to read. i will find it for you, if you like.
You did not prove anything other than citing a report for one district which unfortunately generates too many Muslim criminals.
So why does that district generate a high number of Muslim criminals? is it because they are poor and diadvantaged?
I gave this solid report:
http://realitycheck.files.wordpress.com/2006/12/sach2.JPG
This clearly tells that Muslims are ahead of the general population in several states in education. It is the large % of Muslims in states like UP, Bihar etc. who are laggard and are dragging down the community.
Now come up with some facts and not mere conspiracy theories or report for one district.
This does not show the literacy of Indian Muslims in 1947, as you claim it was lower, and is the reason why Indian Muslims are currently the lowest educated religious group in India.
It does show that currently Indian Muslims are the most uneducated religious group in India, when Hindus are grouped into a single group.
What you have presented is a table of percentages which when presented in this form, conceal the fact that in Muslim dense areas, discrimination occurs strongest in education against Muslims. Overall, this causes the Indian Muslim literacy to be 59%, the lowest in India.