AgNoStiC MuSliM
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You certainly did not consider that part of your post important enough to include in the definition you copied over in your last post, but this confusion could have been avoided had you changed your actual 'definition' to reflect that, perhaps as follows:I guess you failed to look at this part of my post where I defined Arabization:
Let me define Arabization from my perspective, it is the growing influence of some regressive and/or intolerant aspects of Arab culture and customs on Non-Arab Muslim countries. Arab societal behavior and norms have been wrongly intertwined with Islamic behavior and norms. The two being completely different as Arabic culture and custom is suitable for Arabs while Muslim culture and custom is suitable for all Muslims.
Would you agree with how I rephrased your definition? We can continue once you answer that, since my opposition to those arguing against 'Arabization', revolves around this issue primarily.
It can't be considered 'factual' when rational/logical arguments refuting your POV remain (as do good arguments supporting your POV) - it is a good 'hypothesis' at the moment, but far from established 'fact'.So how is being factual being denigrating?
---------- Post added at 07:28 PM ---------- Previous post was at 07:25 PM ----------
Funny, but after I picked apart T-Faz's definition and explained very specifically why and how it appeared to be a 'derogatory generalization', any rational individual would think that the resort to claiming that the position just 'picked apart' was 'fact' was the 'feigned outrage'.This happens when one runs out of intelligent counter-arguments. A feigned outrage is then used to avoid giving a coherent answer.
I certainly don't see any 'outrage', feigned or otherwise, in my criticizm of T-Faz's definition, would you care to elaborate on where you appeared to see it?