The article does not "assume" it, it asserts it and provides examples -- and yes, it is propagated, through clerics. Khuda Haifiz doe snot become Allah Hafiz by itself.
You suggest that we should see this as "evolution" - sure we can see it in that light as well, but that does not negate the argument the author presents -- First, are you persuaded that there is the cultural phenomenon of arabization in Pakistan? If yes, what ideas have led to this development?
Actually, it does "assume" is, because what was Pakistan's pristine state? Was it the advent of Islam in the subcontinent, was it when Hinduism got its birth here 5000 years ago, or was it life before that? What is Pakistan's pristine state according to you?
Actually, you misunderstand my position. There is deliberate acculturation in society when a new culture is enforced upon an old one, but then this new forced culture is allowed to evolve over a period of time. This has happened to all the nations in the world at some point in history. And this is what happened in the Indian subcontinent as well. Which is why I can argue what we saw in pre-1947 Indian subcontinent was not its pristine state either.
Secondly, what does Arabization mean to you? Because just by looking at this thread, Arabization means different things to different people. To some, it is Takfiri Salafization. For others, it is lingual: Khuda Hafiz becomes Allah Hafiz, or people speaking Arabic. For others, it is dress. Etc. So I'm not sure what you specifically are referring to as Arabization. Can you explain it to me? I'm not sure what your argument exactly is. Can you tell me succinctly, which aspect of Arabization is bothering you (lingual, dress, religious aspect)? All three of them? Which one is wrong in your opinion?
You seem to be implying that the Pakistani society is become more 'Arabized'? Is there one type of 'Arab' society though? How would you define an 'Arab society' to be? If Pakistani society is becoming more 'Arabized', why are the Pakistani people much more culturally similar to Indians than they are to Arabs?
For me, there is no cultural Arabization movement in Pakistan. Pakistanis are still much more culturally similar to Indians, Afghans, Iranians etc than they are to Arabs. Most Pakistanis do not live like Arabs, or dress like Arabs.
I would argue that most things in Pakistan, from the Khuda Hafiz to Allah Hafiz, to the Niqab is the result of the "Arabic religious beliefs" Tafkiri ideology creeping into Pakistani society during Zia-ul-Haq's time in the 80s; not as a result of "Arabic culture" dominating our "local culture". No one says "Allah Hafiz" in an Arab country, this is not Arab culture. Which is why I wanted to make a distinction between "Arabic religious beliefs" aka Salafization, & "Arabic culture". Most Pakistanis do not want to be culturally like the Arabs, & only a 'very small minority' wants to emulate the "Arabic religious beliefs" aka Salafization.
What the author is asking, is whether Pakistan is less than Pak, that arabization (read Islamization) has become necessary? Think ideas behind this phenomenon - then look at the examples the author provides to support his contention.
What is the Pak state of Pakistan though? Please read what I have written above.