I always read my references before posting them, some of the references I have are quite old, including the study of the Pakistani population. In fact, I am the only one that provides sources for my claims, & uses the information provided by them in my posts. Your posts are generally devoid of sources, & contain unnecessary information irrelevant to the topic. Besides, no one remembers every citation in a study anyway. You claimed that I referred to racist sources, & that is why I posted a genuine genetic study as my reference for the claims that I made. The genetic study wasn't a racist source, & the book that they referred to wasn't racist either. It was a book simply discussing racist & nationalist ideas in Europe. It is simply a fact that the Nazis borrowed symbols from the IVC & Vedic civilization such as the Swastika. However, this book aims at refuting the concept of the Aryan race, & that has already been refuted. The Aryans were a group of Indo-Iranian tribes that are a branch of proto-Indo-European tribes. So they weren't a race because they themselves belonged to the Caucasian race. Furthermore, this book's purpose in the case study was only to cite the date of these migrations as well as provide information regarding the caste system.
Once again, the book wasn't used to promote racist ideas, that's why it's you that needs to learn to read & understand before coming up with false accusations.
If you had actually bothered to understand the genetic study, then you would have read that the results of this study actually support the idea that Indo-Iranian migrants migrated & setup the caste system. This quote of the results will eliminate your ridiculous attempts at making the genetic study sound nationalistic, biased, or racist.
Genetic Evidence on the Origins of Indian Caste Populations
These results actually give credence to the fact that the Indo-Aryans gave themselves positions of power, & were closer to other Europeans genetically instead of the indigenous people. This actually is considered evidence for the Kurgan hypothesis, which is applied with the Paleolithic Continuity Theory to explain the presence of ancient Indo-Europeans in Europe since Paleolithic times.
The people of the IVC were not Indo-Iranians, no one ever denied that. If you think the Indo-Iranians didn't exist, then you disagree with historic & genetic evidence. Do you actually believe that Sanskrit popped out of nowhere, or that the IVC people randomly forgot their previous script, or that they randomly changed their lifestyle & religion? If you truly believe that the Vedic people didn't exist, then you are denying established history. Even the Medians called themselves Aryans. If you are going to deny genetic, historic, linguistic, & archaeological evidence, then this discussion can go no further. So please stop disturbing me.
Read the article again, the Vedic scripture accurately describes the rituals the people of those Aryan cities practiced over 4000 years ago. This indicates migration & provides us with proof of the existence of the proto-Indo-Iranian Sintashta culture. Regardless of where the Russians think the Saraswati river is, the discovery of these Aryan cities is reliable & documented.
Huh? Harappans wrote the Rigveda? That's not true at all, any source could tell you that the Indo-Aryan migrants to northern Punjab wrote the Rigveda & they were extremely similar to Persians. Please refer to the previous sources I provided you with. In any case, your views are extremely different from that which is indicated by historical, genetic, & linguistic sources. I really see no point in carrying out this discussion any further, & as I speculated earlier, all this discussion has done is forced us to repeat the points we discussed earlier in a previous thread.