A1Kaid
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Actually Indus valley people might or might not have know whether they were called..but people outside.. use to call them Indian.
Infact the first written mention of this region being referred to as India..dates back to Greek philosophers of 400 BC.
400 B.C is much later than the IVC civiliation which we are discussing. The usual time period of IVC is considered 3300-1300 B.C.E some even date it back to further, so Greeks were not calling Indus valley people "Indian" in 400 BC because the IVC people were long dead before than.
Also it doesn't matter what Greeks called whoever was living in present-day Pakistani territory in 400 BC, Columbus called the native Americans "Indians" doesn't mean he is right.