Syed TALHA SHAH
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I often come across materials regarding Indian culture and political history in Canada. I have a few questions that have been bothering me for a while. Given that everyone here is Indian, I'd like to ask the descendents of their history directly!
Thanks in advance! And please correct my views if they are mistaken.
I often come across materials regarding Indian culture and political history in Canada. I have a few questions that have been bothering me for a while. Given that everyone here is Indian, I'd like to ask the descendents of their history directly!
1) Are Hindi, Persian languages influenced by European and Indian dialects? If not, why do Hindi and Persian scripts look so similar?
2) Why has the Indian subcontinent been unified under foreign powers longer than indigenous rulers? I recognize that for most of its history, India has been ruled by myriad of kingdoms or Northwestern/Northeastern/Central/Southern empires but the duration of Mauryan (140~ years) is too shortlived compared to Mughal (330~) and Company/British Raj (100-200~).
3) The Hindus valley civilization encompasses precisely Pakistan. How do Indian people feel about this? Do they consider Pakistan a defecting Indian territory awaiting reunification and hence Hindus is still Indian culture and not Pakistan's alone? Or are they angered by the fact that their ancestors are living in some other country?
4) If Persian attire and technology, and Islam is any evidence of Arab influence on Indian culture, do Indians ostracize muslims because of nationalist factors -- that Islam is not an Indian-made religion? Or is it because of terrorism and hate for Pakistan itself?
5) Lastly, it appears that English pervades through both people and government in India. Do English speakers in India pride themselves on speaking our language or are they ashamed of the fact that it's a remanent of Raj?
Thanks in advance! And please correct my views if they are mistaken.
The entire Indian subcontinent today has 3 nations..but 2(India and Pakistan) of the three are artificial nations in the true sense of the word. Bangladesh is the only nation among the 3 which is a nation in the true historical sense.
They were in Durham and migrated to Ontario afterwards. A few decades later, they moved West to BC. I'm not sure you understand my reference though. You guys are too hostile; I feel for the Aussies.
Interesting. Care to elaborate?
AFAIK Bangladesh was never an independent nation before 1947. Bangladeshi history is intertwined with West Bengal, Bihar and North-Eastern States of India.
Comparing China with India is a wrong analogy if you want to compare nations in a historical sense..you should compare India with Europe. Has Europe ever been under one nation?..Once under ancient Rome but other than that never. It is really a feat of strength that the Mauryas,Mughals,Marathas,British managed that for a period of time. Just for the fact that India is made up of distinctive nations and has been been for time immemorial just like Europe..different parts of India have different language,culture, cuisine etc.They are different..just saying that they all follow Hinduism and are racially same(even that is not exactly true) does not make them a nation same as how Christianity and the white race does not make Europe one nation.
The entire Indian subcontinent today has 3 nations..but 2(India and Pakistan) of the three are artificial nations in the true sense of the word. Bangladesh is the only nation among the 3 which is a nation in the true historical sense.
As for using English..I should again hark back to the European example.If Europe was a nation then English would be less palatable to the non-English than an outsider language like Chinese or Hindi.
Yes I do wish people here would stop using that animated GIF from wikipedia of Chinese dynasties to prove that China was as fragmented as the South Asian subcontinent was and therefore circularly India must have been as centralized and cohesive as China was.
Yup..dynasties come and go and should not be used as a basis for nationhood.
In a historical sense when nations were defined as a group of people with the same ethnicity/culture.
Then I'm afraid you need to know about the multi-ethnic society of Bangladesh. Bengalis in Bangladesh have more in common with Bengalis in West Bengal as compared to their Bihari Countrymen.
The Bihari's in Bangladesh are there due to an accident of history..if there was no partition they would be where they have been for centuries, in Bihar. However even accounting for them.. Bangladesh is a homogeneous society more or less.
The Bihari's in Bangladesh are there due to an accident of history..if there was no partition they would be where they have been for centuries, in Bihar. However even accounting for them.. Bangladesh is a homogeneous society more or less.
Since when societal homogeneity a basis for qualification as a nation, going by your premise US would not be a nation