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A Muslim majority Indus Valley Civilization?

So, how is Urdu related to related to current people of Indus valley when you guys are different from India. Do you see any Muslim from India claiming Pushto language or Baloch language as its own.

Urdu is not our "mother tongue" ... just like urs is not hindi... yet u speak it and even claim IVC tht u had/have no relation with....?
The indians cant claim our languages coz their ancestors were/are ethnic indian natives be they from calcutta or madrass...
 
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I've seen the meditation-seating capsules in MoenJoDaro, and told they were used by Buddhist monks.

You should come visit some time too. Just take the current political tension or whatever it is out of your mind and come witness the history and the people you might have ancient links with.

Buddhism originated in 6th century BC in Bihar and reached present day Pakistan after King Ashoka of Maurya Dynasty converted to Buddhism.
The Pashupati Seal is the yoga posture as yoga has its origin from Indus Valley.
 
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Urdu is from UP/Lucknow, this has been discussed 1000 times before. The reason Hindi and Urdu are so similar (when speaking, not text) is because they were both born in the same freaking place (UP). Its birth is in India, if you are going to claim IVC is not Indian because of geography, then similarly, you should stop using Urdu because Urdu geographically has nothing to do with Pakistan, just like:

All Mughal Emperors (Babur, Akbar, Humayun, Shah Jahan, Aurangzeb etc) - Indians by birth, Central Asian by origin
Tipu Sultan - Mysore
Abdali -Afghanistan
Ghauri - Afghanistan
Ghaznavi - Afghanistan
Durrani - Iran
Mir Qasim - Bengal
Mir Sadiq - Mysore
Mohammed Bin Qasim - Syria

I'm sorry but that't just dumb.

By your same logic, you should stop using English because it is from England and not Bharat.
Urdu was developed by the Muslims of South Asia. Pakistan claims to part of this group of people and thus we have no problems claiming Urdu or any of those great leaders you mentioned.
 
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Geographically the IVC mostly revolves around what is today Pakistan.

So apart from other things, your geography is bad too.. Though the history of the land has no relations with the the politics on the recent times but sill go an check all the IVC sites.

Even if we look with the twisted mindset like yours then also there are sites in UP, Haryana, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Jammu etc in India Kandhahar, Shortugai in Afghanistan. IVC has more to it then only two sites. There are 1400 sites discovered till date.
 
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Since when did hindus become a race or an ethnicity... i think common logic is not very common in india...



No urdu was born in the "muslim courts" of sultans in north.... not ur gangetic plains.. and is associated with muslims of the northern states!

Actually that's wrong. Urdu was originally known as "Khariboli" which was a variation of older Hindi, with some persian and mongol words incorporated by Travellers and merchants.It existed long before the islamic rule in India began. During the reign of Akbar, the Mughals embraced Khariboli and it gradually changed script to resemble West Asian ones( due to Mughal closeness with the Shah) and later came to be known as "Urdu". But it remained essentially a Indo-Aryan language, which is why Urdu and Hindi are taken together as "Hindustani".
 
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Urdu is not our "mother tongue" ... just like urs is not hindi... yet u speak it and even claim IVC tht u had/have no relation with....?
The indians cant claim our languages coz their ancestors were/are ethnic indian natives be they from calcutta or madrass...

Hahahahaha! You my mate are funny!

IVC which whole world sees as Indian and you claim IVC? To be honest you can't claim IVC and claim Muhammad bis qasim, or Timur to be your hero. That's contradiction of extreme form.
 
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There are many North Indian Hindus who believe Hindus is a race. (Hindu-Aryan) and they believe one can not become Hindu, either you are born Hindu or not.

Who cares what these "some north indians think" ... would anyone care if i claim im the King of America in exile?NOPE..
Mate, I have visited Lothal (IVC sites that are in India) and none of them have any signs of Buddhism. You should google Indus Valley Civilisation. None of it is Buddhist. It is Pagan (Hinduism) religion and Buddhism is monotheistic religion. :)

Its funny... half ur mates here believe in Aryan invasion... half believe tht Indus civilisation was dravidian? u guys are confused yourself... tell me how can a guy from Bihar claim IVC? when his ancestors probably never even stepped outside of bihar in a thousand years? and ethnically hes a bihari from the bihar region? IVC never spread to Bihar now did it>?
 
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I'm sorry but that't just dumb.

By your same logic, you should stop using English because it is from England and not Bharat.
Urdu was developed by the Muslims of South Asia. Pakistan claims to part of this group of people and thus we have no problems claiming Urdu or any of those great leaders you mentioned.

You are actually agreeing with me (though you are trying to disagree).

I was answering to the guy who said IVC is not Indian because of geography. I am just saying that if geography is going to be the sole indicator of who can claim what in the subcontinent, then going by that definition Pakistan cannot claim Urdu, Mughals. Tipu Sultan, etc.
 
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I'm sorry but that't just dumb.

By your same logic, you should stop using English because it is from England and not Bharat.
Urdu was developed by the Muslims of South Asia. Pakistan claims to part of this group of people and thus we have no problems claiming Urdu or any of those great leaders you mentioned.

Exactly!

And IVC was Indian phenomena after draught in Indus river Indians went to the banks of Ganges. (Vedic period). Use google and do some research.
 
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Actually that's wrong. Urdu was originally known as "Khariboli" which was a variation of older Hindi, with some persian and mongol words incorporated by Travellers and merchants.It existed long before the islamic rule in India began. During the reign of Akbar, the Mughals embraced Khariboli and it gradually changed script to resemble West Asian ones( due to Mughal closeness with the Shah) and later came to be known as "Urdu". But it remained essentially a Indo-Aryan language, which is why Urdu and Hindi are taken together as "Hindustani".


I don't know about that first part but just wanted to point out that there is no such thing as Indo-Aryan. The main group is called Indp- European and 2. No one calls Urdu has "Hindustani"
Urdu is Urdu and Hindi is HIndi, but are Indo-European languages and both are related but not the same.
 
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Actually that's wrong. Urdu was originally known as "Khariboli" which was a variation of older Hindi, with some persian and mongol words incorporated by Travellers and merchants.It existed long before the islamic rule in India began. During the reign of Akbar, the Mughals embraced Khariboli and it gradually changed script to resemble West Asian ones( due to Mughal closeness with the Shah) and later came to be known as "Urdu". But it remained essentially a Indo-Aryan language, which is why Urdu and Hindi are taken together as "Hindustani".

It was born in the islamic courts... it literally means " lashkari zaban" or military language...

http://www.google.com.pk/url?sa=t&r...6fm9DQ&usg=AFQjCNG06ZT3I8k-9G3VgS25zFP-w45ytA
 
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Urdu is not our "mother tongue" ... just like urs is not hindi... yet u speak it and even claim IVC tht u had/have no relation with....?
The indians cant claim our languages coz their ancestors were/are ethnic indian natives be they from calcutta or madrass...

As I already told you large part of IVC fell inside India.
List of Indus Valley Civilization sites - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Urdu is not my language but surely from Ganga Valley and not of the people of Punjabis of Indus Valley.
 
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Who cares what these "some north indians think" ... would anyone care if i claim im the King of America in exile?NOPE..


Its funny... half ur mates here believe in Aryan invasion... half believe tht Indus civilisation was dravidian? u guys are confused yourself... tell me how can a guy from Bihar claim IVC? when his ancestors probably never even stepped outside of bihar in a thousand years? and ethnically hes a bihari from the bihar region? IVC never spread to Bihar now did it>?

Why you speaking Urdu then, which is a language from UP? Geographically, Urdu has nothing to do with Pakistan.
 
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Pakistani cuisine, language spoken were all born in the current lands of India..
 
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I don't know about that first part but just wanted to point out that there is no such thing as Indo-Aryan. The main group is called Indp- European and 2. No one calls Urdu has "Hindustani"
Urdu is Urdu and Hindi is HIndi, but are Indo-European languages and both are related but not the same.

Urdu has also been called Hindavi.
 
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