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Nurse tests positive for COVID-19 after receiving Pfizer vaccine: report

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Nurse tests positive for COVID-19 after receiving Pfizer vaccine: report
Reuters On Dec 30, 2020 Last updated Dec 30, 2020


A 45-year-old nurse in California tested positive for COVID-19 more than a week after receiving Pfizer Inc’s coronavirus vaccine, an ABC News affiliate reported on Tuesday.


Matthew W., a nurse at two different local hospitals, said in a Facebook post on December 18 that he had received the Pfizer vaccine, telling the ABC News affiliate that his arm was sore for a day but that he had suffered no other side-effects.


Six days later on Christmas Eve, he became sick after working a shift in the COVID-19 unit, the report added. He got the chills and later came down with muscle aches and fatigue.

He went to a drive-up hospital testing site and tested positive for COVID-19 the day after Christmas, the report said.
Christian Ramers, an infectious disease specialist with Family Health Centers of San Diego, told the ABC News affiliate that this scenario was not unexpected.

“We know from the vaccine clinical trials that it’s going to take about 10 to 14 days for you to start to develop protection from the vaccine,” Ramers said.

“That first dose we think gives you somewhere around 50%, and you need that second dose to get up to 95%,” Ramers added.

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Not fully effective until second dose.

There is a case like this in UK too. In fact, the virus may have been inside the target and simply incubating prior to administration of the first dose even.
Unlikely, he likely get it after Jab with pfizer. Pfizer is a scam. Soon more of this case will appear. Typical western report who will keep giving excuse for their failure. First dose is supposed to give more than 50% and second dose is to prolong to immunization.
 
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Unlikely, he likely get it after Jab with pfizer. Pfizer is a scam. Soon more of this case will appear. Typical western report who will keep giving excuse for their failure. First dose is supposed to give more than 50% and second dose is to prolong to immunization.
Questions have been raised by the scientific community about the whole "60% protection after one dose but 95% after two doses" paradigm. One does wonder how the trial was conducted that it bore such results. Anyway, it's too late now as UK has gone all in for the Pfizer vaccine. Time will tell how effective it truly is.
 
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Questions have been raised by the scientific community about the whole "60% protection after one dose but 95% after two doses" paradigm. One does wonder how the trial was conducted that it bore such results. Anyway, it's too late now as UK has gone all in for the Pfizer vaccine. Time will tell how effective it truly is.

see page 26

A good explanation of how the immune response develops with the two immunizations.

Yes, we will have to see how effective the vaccinations will be and if we will need an annual vaccination to maintain the immunity come next fall, but the science of how this is suppose to work is sound.
 
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see page 26

A good explanation of how the immune response develops with the two immunizations.

Yes, we will have to see how effective the vaccinations will be and if we will need an annual vaccination to maintain the immunity come next fall, but the science of how this is suppose to work is sound.
Thank you for these details. My point was more about the interpretation of results in this particular study. Some folks suspect there are sources of bias that haven't been fully accounted for, such as a couple of odd limiters placed on seeking a Covid test for those in the vaccination trial (both Moderna and Pfizer affected by this).

This was from a BMJ blog in November:

"...This assumes all people with symptoms would be tested, as one might expect would be the case. However the trial protocols for Moderna andPfizer’s studies contain explicit language instructing investigators to use their clinical judgment to decide whether to refer people for testing.Moderna puts it this way:

It is important to note that some of the symptoms of COVID-19 overlap with solicited systemic ARs that are expected after vaccination with mRNA-1273 (eg, myalgia, headache, fever, and chills). During the first 7 days after vaccination, when these solicited ARs are common, Investigators should use their clinical judgement to decide if an NP swab should be collected.

This amounts to asking investigators to make guesses as to which intervention group patients were in. But when the disease and the vaccine side-effects overlap, how is a clinician to judge the cause without a test? And why were they asked, anyway?

Importantly, the instructions only refer to the first seven days following vaccination, leaving unclear what role clinician judgment could play in the key days afterward, when cases of covid-19 could begin counting towards the primary endpoint. (For Pfizer, 7 days after the 2nd dose. For Moderna, 14 days.)

In a proper trial, all cases of covid-19 should have been recorded, no matter which arm of the trial the case occurred in. (In epidemiology terms, there should be no ascertainment bias, or differential measurement error). It’s even become common sense in the Covid era: “test, test, test.” But if referrals for testing were not provided to all individuals with symptoms of covid-19—for example because an assumption was made that the symptoms were due to side-effects of the vaccine—cases could go uncounted."

This may influence the data significantly - if trial participants believe their symptoms were due to side effects, then they won't seek a Covid test. Moreover, their GP will be directed by the wording of the guidelines to hold back on Covid testing and instead diagnose an adverse reaction.

I'm not saying the vaccines are rubbish and won't work or that people shouldn't have them. I'm simply raising a possible source of bias because unfortunately, the symptoms of Covid AND common vaccination side effects overlap. One wonders if some genuine positive cases of Covid infection escaped diagnosis during either the phase following the first jab or the phase following the second jab a few weeks later.

It would have made much much more sense for the guidelines to simply declare that ANYONE symptomatic with symptoms of Covid MUST get tested, regardless of whether the GP suspected an adverse vaccine reaction.
 
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Thank you for these details. My point was more about the interpretation of results in this particular study. Some folks suspect there are sources of bias that haven't been fully accounted for, such as a couple of odd limiters placed on seeking a Covid test for those in the vaccination trial (both Moderna and Pfizer affected by this).

This was from a BMJ blog in November:

"...This assumes all people with symptoms would be tested, as one might expect would be the case. However the trial protocols for Moderna andPfizer’s studies contain explicit language instructing investigators to use their clinical judgment to decide whether to refer people for testing.Moderna puts it this way:

It is important to note that some of the symptoms of COVID-19 overlap with solicited systemic ARs that are expected after vaccination with mRNA-1273 (eg, myalgia, headache, fever, and chills). During the first 7 days after vaccination, when these solicited ARs are common, Investigators should use their clinical judgement to decide if an NP swab should be collected.

This amounts to asking investigators to make guesses as to which intervention group patients were in. But when the disease and the vaccine side-effects overlap, how is a clinician to judge the cause without a test? And why were they asked, anyway?

Importantly, the instructions only refer to the first seven days following vaccination, leaving unclear what role clinician judgment could play in the key days afterward, when cases of covid-19 could begin counting towards the primary endpoint. (For Pfizer, 7 days after the 2nd dose. For Moderna, 14 days.)

In a proper trial, all cases of covid-19 should have been recorded, no matter which arm of the trial the case occurred in. (In epidemiology terms, there should be no ascertainment bias, or differential measurement error). It’s even become common sense in the Covid era: “test, test, test.” But if referrals for testing were not provided to all individuals with symptoms of covid-19—for example because an assumption was made that the symptoms were due to side-effects of the vaccine—cases could go uncounted."

This may influence the data significantly - if trial participants believe their symptoms were due to side effects, then they won't seek a Covid test. Moreover, their GP will be directed by the wording of the guidelines to hold back on Covid testing and instead diagnose an adverse reaction.

I'm not saying the vaccines are rubbish and won't work or that people shouldn't have them. I'm simply raising a possible source of bias because unfortunately, the symptoms of Covid AND common vaccination side effects overlap. One wonders if some genuine positive cases of Covid infection escaped diagnosis during either the phase following the first jab or the phase following the second jab a few weeks later.

It would have made much much more sense for the guidelines to simply declare that ANYONE symptomatic with symptoms of Covid MUST get tested, regardless of whether the GP suspected an adverse vaccine reaction.

With millions getting this vaccine in the past few weeks, we will a lot more data, especially the number of patients that contract the virus. Data collected by the end of the next month should be enough to demonstrate how and whom still became infected.

This mass vaccination will certainly have a lot of ADR and efficacy monitoring; and in effect be the largest phase 4 trial in human history

 
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Incubation of Covid19 is 10-14 days. He likely was already infected

ER nurse tests positive for COVID-19 days after first dose of vaccine, reminder protection not instant

Screen Shot 2020-12-31 at 1.26.38 PM.jpg

Screen Shot 2020-12-31 at 1.23.41 PM.jpg

Matthew W

 
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Either he was already infected, or he fell into the margin of error.

Keep in mind, there is no vaccine that has 100% success rate.
 
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Either he was already infected, or he fell into the margin of error.

Keep in mind, there is no vaccine that has 100% success rate.
Not exactly Margin of error. His body may not have generated the immune response. Also keep in mind if he had only gotten the first vaccination a week prior, the body did not have enough time to have learned to generate the antibodies to the virus.

The virus out ran his immune system
 
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