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India’s Future in the World - Outstanding discussing between two intellectual giants of our time

First, @Nilgiri is perfectly correct in saying that the US variant, not mentioned by Gurumurthy, had a different view of human rights from other common law systems. He does not, as Gurumurthy in the original does not, go into the matter of human rights in the continental systems of law.

"Nothing... is unchangeable but the inherent and unalienable rights of man." --Thomas Jefferson to John Cartwright, 1824. ME 16:48

The point I am making is the US founding fathers specifically did it this way (e.g if you read the federalist papers and the precise reason why having a bill of rights was opposed at that point....the body of work by Jefferson is also a very good read) because they were in the business of overthrowing a monarch and the legacy of monarchy. They went quite deeply into everything you are talking about here and the conclusion was, there are indeed inalienable rights every human has, that well predated the govt and societies that humans created.

How the courts interpret this today in practice in the US common law is another subject too of course (one example is the fact that illegal residents do indeed have rights afforded to them by the US constitution itself given they are inalienable rights) and there have been morally flawed applications definitely (the whole condition of slavery etc), but the main consequence of it I find are the 1st two amendments to the constitution that are found no place else....and both establish a level of freedom (in speech and self preservation) that I find are the two defining strengths of the US today. It is the only country with absolute free speech and the right of its citizenry to arm and protect themselves from tyrannical govt (given their rights for both predate the establishment of said govt). Both of these are nigh unthinkable from the outset in a constitutional monarchy (or derivatives of such as seen in the continental system set up by Emperor I won at Austerlitz) in practice for a reason.

So Gurumurthy is not correct in saying all of the western world had this sole predilection to sourcing from a king's divine right (be it direct or manifested quality corollary like you elude to) transferred to state right based on Priotestant Christendom. Like much else he was talking about, he ignored some of the stark objections to the rule of thumb being portrayed (to try divide everything into some sense of black and white, which is actually not a nuanced Dharmic thing to do in all honesty)....that I feel is not good to do in conversation. Still it was a good watch for me....and I agreed with lot of what he said regards to economics.

For instance, the recognition and anointing of Saul by the prophet Samuel.

Slightly different King and prophet, but I couldnt resist!

 
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Rajiv Malhotra loves India. Yet chooses to be a citizen of USA. Haven't seen a bigger hypocrite than him.
 
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Treat this as a brief aside, as I would like to go back to the mainstream discussion on Gurumurthy. For other readers: this is primarily for the consumption of @Nilgiri, and I apologise for the excursus.

"Nothing... is unchangeable but the inherent and unalienable rights of man." --Thomas Jefferson to John Cartwright, 1824. ME 16:48

The point I am making is the US founding fathers specifically did it this way (e.g if you read the federalist papers and the precise reason why having a bill of rights was opposed at that point....the body of work by Jefferson is also a very good read) because they were in the business of overthrowing a monarch and the legacy of monarchy. They went quite deeply into everything you are talking about here and the conclusion was, there are indeed inalienable rights every human has, that well predated the govt and societies that humans created.

How the courts interpret this today in practice in the US common law is another subject too of course (one example is the fact that illegal residents do indeed have rights afforded to them by the US constitution itself given they are inalienable rights) and there have been morally flawed applications definitely (the whole condition of slavery etc), but the main consequence of it I find are the 1st two amendments to the constitution that are found no place else....and both establish a level of freedom (in speech and self preservation) that I find are the two defining strengths of the US today. It is the only country with absolute free speech and the right of its citizenry to arm and protect themselves from tyrannical govt (given their rights for both predate the establishment of said govt).

So far, so good. But that was what the man said, jumping off the 40th floor, as he passed the 19th floor. There are things that I want to say about what is written above, but of that, more anon.

Both of these are nigh unthinkable from the outset in a constitutional monarchy (or derivatives of such as seen in the continental system set up by Emperor I won at Austerlitz) in practice for a reason.

Something seems to have got lost here. Could you please review this at your leisure?

"Houston, we have a problem."

Why, @Nilgiri, are these unthinkable from the outset in a constitutional monarchy or derivatives of such a monarchy?

First, we must be very careful to distinguish between the 'continental system' of Napoleon, that being an ordinance that ruled that there could be no distinct system of commerce for the continent of Europe, and that all countries must observe Napoleon's desire to embargo trade with Great Britain, and the loose way in which I referred to the distinctive system of law called the civil law. That use was because England, then, back in the day, was unique in pursuing common law, based on case law (the two go together but are not the same), but most countries on the continent of Europe, subsequently, Asian countries as well, went by civil law, that was law defined a priori on the basis of a structured code defining the law on each aspect that the law-makers thought to be important.

Second, the distinction between the grant of inalienable human rights to themselves under the American constitution is by no means ruled out, even (theoretically) in a civil law jurisdiction, including a constitutional monarchy, except by taking a very narrow technical view. Here we need to pause to draw further distinctions, this time, between a constitutional monarchy and any other, and also between the provisions of civil law and common law.

Providing these rights under common law is not possible UNLESS AND UNTIL THERE IS SPECIFIC LEGISLATION TO THAT EFFECT, or, as has happened in India, UNLESS THE COURTS RULE THAT THE INTERPRETATION OF CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS YIELD AN IDENTICAL RESULT, A SET OF INALIENABLE HUMAN RIGHTS.

So, one at a time.

In a system of common law, there was no written document stating what was the law. It was what the King decided it was, and in order to record it and serve as a guide for administrators, for those who administered the King's justice, it was recorded in the form of writs - the link to writing is clear. These writs, then, were the constituted law.

What happens when there is a disagreement on how the law is to be interpreted? Ideally, the King is asked; but when the King is moving about his kingdom staying at different places for one or two weeks at a time, that is quite difficult, especially for a questioner of the humbler sort. Therefore the system of delegated authority took over, and courts were established that decided how a law was to be applied. Each case tried served as a model and as a precedent - a vital term in common law - for other, parallel courts and for other subordinate courts. However, higher courts - as this implies, there was a strict hierarchy of courts - could, through their judgements, differ from the judgement of a lower court, and re-state the law, and such a judgement would be binding on the lower courts and on parallel courts. That embodies the concept of appeals from the judgement of a lower court to a higher court, and is a hallmark of a common law system. Theoretically, in a civil law system, the first hearing and adjudication is the last; there is no question of appeal, unless the judge at the lower level has grossly misunderstood the article of the legal code that is in question. Here the judges interpret the code; in common law, the judges interpret the body of cases that constitute the case law on the matter.

Where is Gurumurthy in all this?

Simply, that @Nilgiri's assertion that a declaration of inalienable human rights is impossible in a constitutional monarchy conflates the status of a country living under the civil law, with the status of a constitutional monarchy, and the concept of a written constitution.

In countries under common law, all law being derived from individual writs, and thereafter by statutes, the parliamentary equivalent of writs, there can be no inalienable human rights unless the conditions put in capitals above apply: that there should be a specific statute stating that such inalienable human rights are recognised by the law of the land, or there should be a judicial interpretation of the body of statutes, that should conclude that those statutes implicitly acknowledged inalienable human rights.

In countries under civil law, however, if the code states that there are such things as inalienable human rights, there ends the matter.

Now we come to the question of constitutions - written constitutions, in the common law world and in the civil law world, and we come to a further bifurcation, between monarchies with a constitution in the common law world, monarchies with a constitution in the civil law world, and monarchies without a written constitution in the common law world, finally, monarchies without a constitution in the civil law world. Great Britain is the premier example of a monarchy without a constitution in the common law world; in fact, in light of the extent and jurisdiction of the common law system, the British monarchy is the only monarchy that can be defined to be under common law. In Britain, there is no written constitution; the sum total of statutes legislated and adopted constitute the nation's body of law. At present, there are no monarchies known that exist in the civil law world without a constitution.

Coming to those with a written constitution, there are no monarchies with a written constitution in the common law world, but there are democracies, for instance, India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh on our own sub-continent, that follow common law and have a written constitution, and, of course, towering over us, in terms of constitutional precedence according to age, the United States. Almost every monarchy in the civil law jurisdiction has a written constitution: in alphabetical order, Belgium, Denmark, Japan, Luxembourg, Monaco, the Netherlands, Norway, Spain, Sweden. I hope I have not omitted any. I am confused about the positioning of the Jordan, Kuwait, the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates; my inclination is to classify them under the jurisdiction of civil law, but a very special sub-category, indeed, so special that certain purists might contend that they constitute a separate category in themselves. Taking the first set first, in each of those constitutions, human rights that are inalienable may be placed within the constitution.

This needs an explanation. In each of these, the monarch is supreme, sovereign. He, or she is the embodiment of the law, BUT he or she has voluntarily ceded to his or her subjects certain rights and privileges that stem from his or her sovereign authority. The question is whether or not such ceded rights can be withdrawn at a later date. As they stem from the person of the sovereign, a succeeding sovereign obviously has the right to withdraw this concession, as he or she himself or herself has precisely the over-riding authority as the predecessor who first ceded the powers to the subjects.

It is very clearly not a practical proposition, but theoretically, Nilgiri has a point, a very narrow, technical point in asserting that a constitutional monarchy cannot be a reliable source of guarantee for the inalienable rights of human beings.

So Gurumurthy is not correct in saying all of the western world had this sole predilection to sourcing from a king's divine right (be it direct or manifested quality corollary like you elude to) transferred to state right based on Priotestant Christendom.

I have a different set of objections, actually. There is a horrible gap in the argument here. Weber's thesis was on the nature of Protestant belief, and theology, and the reasons why this theology was more supportive of capitalism than the other major theological points of view within Europe, the Roman Catholic theology and the Orthodox theology. Since we have already taken enough time on constitutional monarchy, on common law vs. civil law and such nice things, with your collective permission, we shall approach this later.

Like much else he was talking about, he ignored some of the stark objections to the rule of thumb being portrayed (to try divide everything into some sense of black and white, which is actually not a nuanced Dharmic thing to do in all honesty)....that I feel is not good to do in conversation. Still it was a good watch for me....and I agreed with lot of what he said regards to economics.

We can discuss this.

Slightly different King and prophet, but I couldnt resist!


LOL.

Most apposite; this is part of the coronation ritual of a monarch who rules without a written constitution.
 
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Appreciate your patience to transcribe the discussion.

Let me take this forward and focus on the parts where you disagree.

Part 1 (Global history + economic systems rising from Christian world/politics):

1. USA reset was different (in opposition to European system), clear inherent, inalienable, god given (direct) rights (rather than lease of rights from king of divine authority). Disingenous for Guru to skip this over.

Guru's objective was to highlight the difference in approach by the Systems developed by the Dharmic societies and the Abrahamic societies in the larger socio-political and economic framework.

He is not sitting in critique or defence of the US system.

It's a bit rich for to claim the US provides clear inherent, inalienable and god given rights when its entire foundation is based on DISPLACING the Native americans by disregarding those very rights.

This divine right of king was just replaced by the divine right of the people. The fundamental concept remained the same, which was guru's point.

3. Pre-existing (to British Raj) right to property and life in India (being somewhat similar in essence to US), was not codified politically in a larger national level and was somewhat variable in history (there were clearly bad kings and tyrants etc well before foreign invasions started).

You are Wrong. In the dharmic system, the king was established as the caretaker and not the owner. He had no divine rights except those inherited to uphold Dharma. The very word "Rajan" means "protector of the people", not ruler of the people.

In the earliest dharmic context, the king did not even have the right to declare someone "Guilty", he merely had the right to "Danda" i.e. Punish.

The guilty itself was decided by the Pradvivaka or the dharmikah.

More importantly Manusmriti itself recognized the jury system (or bench) and recommended a jury of at least 3 judges, while kautilya recommended a minimum of 6. This system continues to exist today as Panchayats (5 members).


7. Disagree with capitalism being fully materialistic only, it is more defined (imo) on anti consolidated state economic power/reach past public goods (but to rather allow organic free market to exist for allocation of resources esp w.r.t commodities)

Capitalism in its purest form is transactional in nature and value is assigned only to deliberate transaction. It disregards all incidental transactions like the ecosystem, the ecology, e.g. the oxygen we consume give by the plants, etc.

The destruction we see around us is the result of this narrow view.

8. Capitalism can definitely have spiritual and non-monetary aspects (disagree with Guru), it is however largely neutral regarding them as they portend to economic forces

NO it does not. It does not comment on the spiritual and non monetary, because they are irrelevant. Not because it attempts to make space for them.

9. "Purpose" of capitalism is lot more advanced, I would disagree with it being equivalent and same purpose of communism. There was definitely an overlap (material wellbeing), but capitalism approaches this somewhat scientifically and broadly in that material gain is the only real way to measure progress objectively. It does not exclude other forms of progress inherently, just adopts neutral tone to them since they cannot as easily be objectively measured. This is a key distinction Guru misses.

Communism too approaches wellbeing scientifically too. Same as capitalism. It too takes a neutral tone to things like "art" as something to be done AFTER 'work'. Both capitalism or communism does not see "spirituality" or similar esoteric pursuits as work.

10. It really depends how you define capitalism given there are many types and forms of capitalism. Pure material driven capitalism (to the complete exclusion of other social aspects) is only one form. There are others. There are ongoing debates and schools of thought regarding this. Sankranti for instance argues a lot on the Hegel perspective which is fine, we just have to realise there are competing streams of definition here on what we mean.

I do nothing of that sort. I deconstruct capitalism to its fundamentals, what it promotes, what it defines and where it has led, to understand the core of this system. Not draw conclusions based on modern capitalist socities which is an amalgamation of influences from dharmic societies (via UK)


2. Don't buy the anti-Hindu atmosphere argument (supposedly kept sheltered privately intrinsically/institutionally in independent India by essence) too much. Rather it was suppresed/displaced (at the fountain head of national/political/economic thought) by the islamic conquest + colonialism earlier and the substitution of this in some unfettered way by "diluted" Marxism (after independence). There was massive inevitable inertia inherited from this. It is being reclaimed now over time.

This massive inertial you refer too is supplemented and perpetuated by state sponsored suppression of Hindu institutions (be it temples or schools), illegitimate "caste" made constitutional and denunciation of any Grand Narrative that seeks to restore Hindu self respect and pride.


11. Commentary on west overall correct and Max weber commentary being perception rather than prognosis correct. Extreme high individualism definitely creates a void (by erosion of immediate local social capital) that the larger ever-growing type of social forces will occupy in their most nefarious ways for sure (big govt overreach). This is definitely already happening in the "post prime" developed countries.

12. I disagree its a defeat for Christianity/abrahamic religion.

13. Disagree vehemently its in the root of Christianity. The concept of order and structured dominion from disorder and total generic entropy is found in nearly all culture and definitely all civilisation.

This is the crux of the argument.

Christianity and hence capitalism consider Land as "property". Humans OWN property, to be used and abused since it was put on earth to serve the one being with a "soul", i.e. Humans. E.g. Animals and trees do not have "soul". Earth itself is "created" for the use of men.

Dharmic system however only consider those things created by "Labour" as property. So for the farmer, the grains that he produce is his "property", the land itself belongs to the state i.e to all. He has rights on that land only as long as he works on it or lives in it. Similarly a Farmer has the right over the milk he extracts from the cow, but has no right over the Life of the cow itself. This philosophy is extended to all things.


14. Too simplistic analysis of the West in what they conserve/exploit etc. Catch phrases of anthropocentric and ecocentric is disingenuous too the way they are being applied liberally here.

Nope, an accurate analysis of their current actions, their past and how its base in its christian history.

16. Oversimplistic on the multi-cultural USA. This is a massive subject by itself. They are not fully wrong or right on this. India is not exactly stellar at some inherent cultural level on this. But I feel India overall does a good job on this social aspect in its specific environment because of its cultural inheritance and evolution.

He distills the essence of the US. Again he is not sitting in critique of the US nor in its praise.

1. Disagree with Japan and China not having an original culture, China had strong Confucian roots before Buddhism. Japan had its pre-Shinto culture too. Definitely India influenced them, but its not some overarching level.

He provides a clear distinctions between the social relevance of Confucian and the gaps filled by buddhism when it introduced spirituality and methods to access spirituality.

In Japan nothing remains of the pre Shinto culture.



4. Crime Rates, I understand where he is coming from, but a lot of it is under-reported too. Cannot really compare across countries easily. I cannot criticise BD people on this forum on the lack of crediblity from their country alone, there is plenty to improve in India too before comparing crime rates with other major societies in the west etc.

Under reporting of crime is a fact ALL OVER THE WORLD.

But India is remarkably peaceful and stable despite being one of the poorest nations in the world and having the maximum mount of diversity in the world in terms of Religion, Language, ethnicity and Tribes.

If we compare that to the number of police stations we have, its unbelievable how relatively crime free we really are. This is not possible in ANY OTHER Country in the world.

US has just a fractions of our diversity and it is literally a Police state.


8. Some "Western ppl who control the whole thing" for wikipedia is kind of silly talk. People who edit more pages get more credibility and rating (and over time ability to moderate and review changes), this is a standard model across the internet. The bias when it comes to subjective topics is somewhat true. More on youtube and facebook compared to wkipedia now. Only way to address is to make Indian equivalents and alternatives to hedge and compete. It will take time....meanwhile its good time to learn whats going right and wrong right now.

Nope, this is true for Wikipedia as well.

Simple example is that the page on "Jesus" calls him "historic figure" while the page on Krishna calls him a "mythical figure" even though countless records exist on him in tons of hindu and Jain books.

The "evidence" for both of them is the same.

9. Maybe it changed some minds regarding India after Pokhran. I had to deal with gora snobs in middle school saying India is going to blow itself up. Very few people change their prejudice overnnight like what guru is suggesting imo. Its true Indian confidence levels rose with time....its not only hard power (pokhran) related though.

That is just your view vs Guru's views. I myself have found a more resurgent and confident India, when I compare the people with those of an earlier generation. It was certainly a significant even in 1974.

"Nothing... is unchangeable but the inherent and unalienable rights of man." --Thomas Jefferson to John Cartwright, 1824. ME 16:48

The point I am making is the US founding fathers specifically did it this way (e.g if you read the federalist papers and the precise reason why having a bill of rights was opposed at that point....the body of work by Jefferson is also a very good read) because they were in the business of overthrowing a monarch and the legacy of monarchy. They went quite deeply into everything you are talking about here and the conclusion was, there are indeed inalienable rights every human has, that well predated the govt and societies that humans created.

How the courts interpret this today in practice in the US common law is another subject too of course (one example is the fact that illegal residents do indeed have rights afforded to them by the US constitution itself given they are inalienable rights) and there have been morally flawed applications definitely (the whole condition of slavery etc), but the main consequence of it I find are the 1st two amendments to the constitution that are found no place else....and both establish a level of freedom (in speech and self preservation) that I find are the two defining strengths of the US today. It is the only country with absolute free speech and the right of its citizenry to arm and protect themselves from tyrannical govt (given their rights for both predate the establishment of said govt). Both of these are nigh unthinkable from the outset in a constitutional monarchy (or derivatives of such as seen in the continental system set up by Emperor I won at Austerlitz) in practice for a reason.

So Gurumurthy is not correct in saying all of the western world had this sole predilection to sourcing from a king's divine right (be it direct or manifested quality corollary like you elude to) transferred to state right based on Priotestant Christendom. Like much else he was talking about, he ignored some of the stark objections to the rule of thumb being portrayed (to try divide everything into some sense of black and white, which is actually not a nuanced Dharmic thing to do in all honesty)....that I feel is not good to do in conversation. Still it was a good watch for me....and I agreed with lot of what he said regards to economics.

Let me point out the flaw in your reasoning.

Your premise itself stands on "unalienable rights of man.".

The End results of such narrow "rights" forced the New Zealand courts to grant the Whanganui river, same legal rights as a human being.

Of course, Dharmic traditions has long considered "Ganga" or "saraswati" as persons and corresponding respect accorded to such persons. (disregarding the colonial and post colonial abuse of this river)

Now juxtapose the rights of domestic animals with the rights of man. Then do the same for Non Domestic animals with the rights of man.

The christian inspired devine "human rights" comes into sharp focus.

I have already mentioned how the divine right of kings has been transferred to Divine rights of a group of men, which is also the point guru makes.
 
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@Dungeness @Gibbs @Genesis @django @Hell hound @Zibago

For your reading at your discretion/interest and if anyone wants to talk about specific things more, I am all open for that.

Watched the last video bruh, Nothing spectacularly revealing, Just two ultra nationalists self proclaiming intellects (Sorry never heard about neither of them had to google) regurgitating their views, Read these narratives many times over here from the usual suspects.. Not interested.. I guess no one would be other than their targeted audience of nationalist Hindu Indians.. They say all global systems of governance have failed except for the Indian specifically Hindu system and wants the rest to follow that.. I'd say no thanks

Joe @Joe Shearer would be more than capable to handle such an lengthy discussion than a simple pleb like me.. But ill be sure to follow the thread with intent
 
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Watched the last video bruh, Nothing spectacularly revealing, Just two ultra nationalists self proclaiming intellects (Sorry never heard about neither of them had to google) regurgitating their views, Read these narratives many times over here from the usual suspects.. Not interested.. I guess no one would be other than their targeted audience of nationalist Hindu Indians.. They say all global systems of governance have failed except for the Indian specifically Hindu system and wants the rest to follow that.. I'd say no thanks

Not only not revealing, riddled with mistakes of a very basic nature. But read sankranti's defence, for what it's worth. He keeps emphasising whatever doctrine, political, or economic, or legal that is implicit in a thousand contradictory theses, without any respect for what was implemented in practice. Since we are well-known for our disability with regard to history, it is the easiest cop-out to say that these were practised and perfected, but we just have not kept records of something so elementary. On the contrary, any references to law or to courts that we have demonstrate the most arbitrary approach to trial, to evidence, to any kind of legal code determining what punishment could be legitimately administered, in short, there is no structure that appears, except structures that are paralleled by other knowledge structures that are frankly phantasmagoric.

The terrifying part of this is the frequent references that the two make to western concepts of political science, of economics and of development; even at a casual undergraduate level, the gaps in knowledge and understanding are startling. And this is the talent that will guide the administration that will govern our country.
 
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Watched the last video bruh,

Haha not really why I tagged you (more to have a look at my points on the video, so y'all dont really have to watch it if you dont want to etc).

Just two ultra nationalists self proclaiming intellects (Sorry never heard about neither of them had to google) regurgitating their views, Read these narratives many times over here from the usual suspects.. Not interested.. I guess no one would be other than their targeted audience of nationalist Hindu Indians.. They say all global systems of governance have failed except for the Indian specifically Hindu system and wants the rest to follow that.. I'd say no thanks

I understand bro....I did not like the tone and haughtiness either....most of the good economic stuff (more my cup of tea overall) was in the 2nd video tbh. (Would love for you if you want to have any input on the stuff I outlined point by point there or anything you feel needs expansion/discussion)
 
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Something seems to have got lost here. Could you please review this at your leisure?

Joe, I used the term (continental system) very vaguely and tongue in cheek way I suppose. Sorry for that, not my intention to get into the nuanced details. I was largely referring to the Napoleonic code becoming a default system in the legal jurisprudence of (continental) Europe over time...because of those 10 or so years France beat the military crap out of pretty much everyone in the continent @Vergennes

I will have to read your reply in greater detail when I have time (and you are right we should probably flesh out this discussion over time if relevant), I perused through it for now, sorry if this response is a bit short as a result.

The origin of said civil law structures (some pre-date the code obviously) borrowed a lot from the concept of the earlier absolute monarchies, not really in essence but more the way they were applied and deliberated/referenced in court (if you look at say the lack of use of a jury for criminal case etc)....and continued possibility (however remote) to infringe on pre-existing human rights before the concept of a State/central authority existed....essentially by way of tyranny of majority, political purposes/ambitions or other non-logical constructs.

It is very clearly not a practical proposition, but theoretically, Nilgiri has a point, a very narrow, technical point in asserting that a constitutional monarchy cannot be a reliable source of guarantee for the inalienable rights of human beings.

Actually it ties into the influence you mentioned of Locke (his large body of commentary on unalienable rights) that propelled (along with the works of Cicero, Polybius, Blackstone, Coke, Montesquieu among others) what the US declaration of independence concerned and the constitution drawn upon it later after the revolution ended.

http://www.crf-usa.org/foundations-of-our-constitution/natural-rights.html

This was somewhat transitioned into over time in the other (original influence/ideology from Athens) western democracies (be they common or civil law) but none really had a clear cut founding/basis on this issue to the degree of the actual political founding (in a way this manifested by chance only for the US as the article I posted summarised).

This is relevant imo because to this day, certain SCOTUS judges (Clarence Thomas is a good example of one currently) draw upon the US declaration of independence as a legal document (of course for basis rather than final authority) in the overall same relevant standing as the Constitution itself (as somewhat of a Father and Son relationship that natural and constitutional law have ). In fact Justice Thomas is a big proponent of the natural rights (what are referenced to as inalienable in the declaration of independence) of all residents within the US....because it guarantees equality, "even if the (interpreted) words of the Constitution do not". Because natural law really is that fundamental in its essence compared to constitutional human law (which by interpretation perpetuated a thing like Slavery well after US independence for just one example). I believe Justice Thomas (in his earlier days) was absolutely shocked and revolted the SCOTUS ruled in brown vs. board basically on the "feeling of inferiority" rather than clear violation of Liberty (that racial segregation clearly is by Natural Law).

It is interesting to note as well the major reason in the original (quite revolting) court ruling (I forget if it was SCOTUS or not) that prevented black people from acquiring US citizenship was because then the 2A (ownership of firearms) would apply to them (largely slaves at that time). Its actually all there in the court commentary/deliberation...I will have to go look for it again. Again it was case of interpretation of constitutional law and the ability to sideline natural law.

Why I choose to go into this particularly is because in every other system I have seen ( though I have not studied it to depth I have the US because of my personal interest in the US Civil War...so I may fall short on the analysis), there are multiple (of course theoretical) routes that can be exploited by govt (and by the courts and any other organ of power) compared to the US system stemming from this "reset" the US had from the get go:

http://lawiscool.com/2010/02/22/are-there-inalienable-rights-in-canada/

And what is possible theoretically is always possible in reality at some point. In Canada's particular context, I can go into a much larger discussion involving clear govt overreach in freedom of speech recently as just one example.

It may be of interest to you to have a read of this at some point (the setting and limits of the natural rights in the US):

https://scholarlycommons.law.wlu.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=3506&context=wlulr
 
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Joe, I used the term (continental system) very vaguely and tongue in cheek way I suppose. Sorry for that, not my intention to get into the nuanced details. I was largely referring to the Napoleonic code becoming a default system in the legal jurisprudence of (continental) Europe over time...because of those 10 or so years France beat the military crap out of pretty much everyone in the continent @Vergennes

I will have to read your reply in greater detail when I have time (and you are right we should probably flesh out this discussion over time if relevant), I perused through it for now, sorry if this response is a bit short as a result.

The origin of said civil law structures (some pre-date the code obviously) borrowed a lot from the concept of the earlier absolute monarchies, not really in essence but more the way they were applied and deliberated/referenced in court (if you look at say the lack of use of a jury for criminal case etc)....and continued possibility (however remote) to infringe on pre-existing human rights before the concept of a State/central authority existed....essentially by way of tyranny of majority, political purposes/ambitions or other non-logical constructs.



Actually it ties into the influence you mentioned of Locke (his large body of commentary on unalienable rights) that propelled (along with the works of Cicero, Polybius, Blackstone, Coke, Montesquieu among others) what the US declaration of independence concerned and the constitution drawn upon it later after the revolution ended.

http://www.crf-usa.org/foundations-of-our-constitution/natural-rights.html

This was somewhat transitioned into over time in the other (original influence/ideology from Athens) western democracies (be they common or civil law) but none really had a clear cut founding/basis on this issue to the degree of the actual political founding (in a way this manifested by chance only for the US as the article I posted summarised).

This is relevant imo because to this day, certain SCOTUS judges (Clarence Thomas is a good example of one currently) draw upon the US declaration of independence as a legal document (of course for basis rather than final authority) in the overall same relevant standing as the Constitution itself (as somewhat of a Father and Son relationship that natural and constitutional law have ). In fact Justice Thomas is a big proponent of the natural rights (what are referenced to as inalienable in the declaration of independence) of all residents within the US....because it guarantees equality, "even if the (interpreted) words of the Constitution do not". Because natural law really is that fundamental in its essence compared to constitutional human law (which by interpretation perpetuated a thing like Slavery well after US independence for just one example). I believe Justice Thomas (in his earlier days) was absolutely shocked and revolted the SCOTUS ruled in brown vs. board basically on the "feeling of inferiority" rather than clear violation of Liberty (that racial segregation clearly is by Natural Law).

It is interesting to note as well the major reason in the original (quite revolting) court ruling (I forget if it was SCOTUS or not) that prevented black people from acquiring US citizenship was because then the 2A (ownership of firearms) would apply to them (largely slaves at that time). Its actually all there in the court commentary/deliberation...I will have to go look for it again. Again it was case of interpretation of constitutional law and the ability to sideline natural law.

Why I choose to go into this particularly is because in every other system I have seen ( though I have not studied it to depth I have the US because of my personal interest in the US Civil War...so I may fall short on the analysis), there are multiple (of course theoretical) routes that can be exploited by govt (and by the courts and any other organ of power) compared to the US system stemming from this "reset" the US had from the get go:

http://lawiscool.com/2010/02/22/are-there-inalienable-rights-in-canada/

And what is possible theoretically is always possible in reality at some point. In Canada's particular context, I can go into a much larger discussion involving clear govt overreach in freedom of speech recently as just one example.

It may be of interest to you to have a read of this at some point (the setting and limits of the natural rights in the US):

https://scholarlycommons.law.wlu.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=3506&context=wlulr

I really would like to take this further, so do let me know when it is convenient.
 
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Let me take this forward and focus on the parts where you disagree.

Doesn't only have to be the bits I disagree, I do think having a conversation on the large body I agree with or am neutral to (that may be of interest to you personally etc) is also apt and relevant. Do let me know in another reply about those if you feel like.

I will have to keep this reply fairly short in interest of time/my particular interest etc. We can flesh it out over time.

Guru's objective was to highlight the difference in approach by the Systems developed by the Dharmic societies and the Abrahamic societies in the larger socio-political and economic framework.

He is not sitting in critique or defence of the US system.

It's a bit rich for to claim the US provides clear inherent, inalienable and god given rights when its entire foundation is based on DISPLACING the Native americans by disregarding those very rights.

This divine right of king was just replaced by the divine right of the people. The fundamental concept remained the same, which was guru's point.

Fair enough. I am just going on what was set in theory only for the sake of it. How things are applied in practice (and then expanded or rectified etc) on the ground very much depends on many factors in all societies. I do not subscribe to giving a higher inherent moral basis to anyone (I am disgusted when judeo-christian commentators do it as well in some reactionary haughty way)....I judge largely on what is churned out and laundered through the society (with all its human imperfection) in the end as a result....and there is much to improve for everyone here...the precise level of all of that is really open to our own biases and prejudices, so really I do not think its a relevant discussion of absolutes.

You are Wrong. In the dharmic system, the king was established as the caretaker and not the owner. He had no divine rights except those inherited to uphold Dharma. The very word "Rajan" means "protector of the people", not ruler of the people.

In the earliest dharmic context, the king did not even have the right to declare someone "Guilty", he merely had the right to "Danda" i.e. Punish.

The guilty itself was decided by the Pradvivaka or the dharmikah.

More importantly Manusmriti itself recognized the jury system (or bench) and recommended a jury of at least 3 judges, while kautilya recommended a minimum of 6. This system continues to exist today as Panchayats (5 members).

Glad you brought it up and I agree....its one of the clear distinctions between the (esp later) Dharmic monarch versus a Judeo-Christian one (which did not really imo have the time to discuss and de-facto reform the coded dogma like Hinduism did with the Upanishads and Puranas and all forms of Smriti from the original Sruti Raw Vedic Passions of conquest, reality and existence). We are a much older civilisation its true, I do not hold it against the younger more impassioned/frenzied ones (regarding their social dogma and how they tempered it over time but have not really evolved to the same way Dharmic culture has today, one always mindful of Kaliyug)....neither does it absolve the Hindu cultural history of when clearly these doctrines were not followed. We need far more dedicated historical analysis of all of this in first place....we are still recovering from the onslaught inflicted on us.

This was only starting to some extent (in the Abrahamic world) in the split from Christianity (turn the other cheek etc) from Judaism (but then Islam sort of went back to the roots of Judaic expansionary doctrine)....and then the much later reformation in Christendom (which interestingly largely drew upon the Pagan Greek progressiveness and the related Roman empire).....or even the myriad of forms the Christian religion took in relation to its resident population (the difference in culture from say a Nordic to a Coptic). So again I was more talking about what ends up happening on the ground regardless from time to time.

Capitalism in its purest form is transactional in nature and value is assigned only to deliberate transaction. It disregards all incidental transactions like the ecosystem, the ecology, e.g. the oxygen we consume give by the plants, etc.

The destruction we see around us is the result of this narrow view.

Actually it regards all of those as well if given the opportunity, simply those supplying and demanding the good or service need to be mindful. Capitalism (free market system) is simply what exists at default.....and is thus a sum of whatever the constituents of the default society is. If you improve the society (social capital Guru talks about), the capitalism simply accomodates as well (given its baked into that change in demand and supply caused by that social capital) and rises to that higher overall level naturally.

Again it depends how you define Capitalism. There are definitely filthy versions of it, but they are a reflection of the quality of that underlying social capital in society. Capitalism is neither friend nor foe in essence, it simply what exists when you want something you cannot provide yourself. How and why you want that and how and why others provide that is dependent on myriad of issues....that is where culture and society come in. That is what is of interest to a civilisation/country to discuss and engage in....rather than scapegoating capitalism itself.

NO it does not. It does not comment on the spiritual and non monetary, because they are irrelevant. Not because it attempts to make space for them.

Again was going on the way Guru was implying quality attributes to it in first place. If you do it one way, you can do it another way (what is to stop that?) Or you can use the base definition I explained just now in what is it in essence and realise it just molds around everything else...and thus open to new personal perceptions and definitions.

This is the crux of the argument.

Christianity and hence capitalism consider Land as "property". Humans OWN property, to be used and abused since it was put on earth to serve the one being with a "soul", i.e. Humans. E.g. Animals and trees do not have "soul". Earth itself is "created" for the use of men.

Dharmic system however only consider those things created by "Labour" as property. So for the farmer, the grains that he produce is his "property", the land itself belongs to the state i.e to all. He has rights on that land only as long as he works on it or lives in it. Similarly a Farmer has the right over the milk he extracts from the cow, but has no right over the Life of the cow itself. This philosophy is extended to all things.

Yes this is the clear Dharmic evolution in philosophy none other has achieved (sustainably in the doctrine) imo as well. Hence (short term) impassioned expansionist forces in (AD) history versus the (longer termed) balanced elder civilizations....specifically what their grander objectives were. We must also learn from this reality too and temper both our expectations and interactions accordingly.

It is why I feel when India got that moment in 1947 to truly do something great for itself framework wise (i.e the theory bit), it was squandered horrendously. We have a badly set up theory to begin with right now....we are making do with this situation for time being (and actually doing ok imo)...when the time is more appropriate for another reset, lets see how it goes.

He provides a clear distinctions between the social relevance of Confucian and the gaps filled by buddhism when it introduced spirituality and methods to access spirituality.

In Japan nothing remains of the pre Shinto culture.

Will have to somewhat agree to disagree there. While I do accept there is large influence in East Asia from Buddhism, there is significant amounts of their own local culture that create quite a large dissonance to this day. A recent example is how Japan pretty much turned against Buddhism in the militarist Shinto doctrine (first really harnessed much earlier by the Shogunate) for nearly a full generation. The scale of what happened in that period does not really inspire me to believe there was a mass permeated cultural adherence to the tenets of Buddhism....and it coincides with the lack of resilience many Buddhist cultures (where it permeated much more than Japan) had in other parts of Asia to the expansionary cultures that invaded eventually. I am of the belief the Japanese definitely carried something in them they still carry today that is quite different to rest of the Asian continent.

In fact in Shintoism you can see large elements of the pre-Shinto culture when it comes to specific nature worship as well. There are parallels regarding this in China as well with the Taoist religion. In fact China is complicated... Confucianism, Taoism and Buddhism all created a particular cultural synthesis that waxed and waned depending on the particular dynasty/time/political authority.

Anyways its not really a big interest of mine to continue this part of the discussion here.

Under reporting of crime is a fact ALL OVER THE WORLD.

But India is remarkably peaceful and stable despite being one of the poorest nations in the world and having the maximum mount of diversity in the world in terms of Religion, Language, ethnicity and Tribes.

If we compare that to the number of police stations we have, its unbelievable how relatively crime free we really are. This is not possible in ANY OTHER Country in the world.

US has just a fractions of our diversity and it is literally a Police state.

Like I said I get where he is coming from. I am just talking about the credibility side for others. If we are interested only in our own credibility on the issue to ourselves, thats fine too....but I believe the approach needs to be balanced. And we will have to agree to disagree the US is a police state.

Communism too approaches wellbeing scientifically too. Same as capitalism. It too takes a neutral tone to things like "art" as something to be done AFTER 'work'. Both capitalism or communism does not see "spirituality" or similar esoteric pursuits as work.

There is nothing scientific about Communism at all. It proclaims to be, but literally is just full authoritarian govt control of every matter to achieve full equal results and enforced static entropy. It is the anti-thesis to the free market where the science is literally simplified to demand and supply....which is to be studied and analysed objectively using Occam's razor if it is to be studied and analyzed at all. Communism attempts to replace that in the most anti-scientific, illogical, emotionally driven and ham-fisted way imaginable....and always ended up being a bastardized several inbred cousins removed version of capitalism (that which exists naturally and of free will) laundered through countless forms of illogical human emotion.They are not comparable at all in their approach. In fact this somewhat parallels the elder vs newer civilisation philosophy.

Nope, this is true for Wikipedia as well.

Simple example is that the page on "Jesus" calls him "historic figure" while the page on Krishna calls him a "mythical figure" even though countless records exist on him in tons of hindu and Jain books.

The "evidence" for both of them is the same.

Probably due to the time elapse in play (given the non-Christian Roman + Jewish commentaries on Jesus the person rather than Son of God which the Christians later espoused). These are just terms. I for one am happy Krishna (and I would assume all other Avatars) is "mythical" rather than "historical"....the more removed he is from Western thought/definition, the larger the need for true faith from us in this age of Kaliyug....which is what will unify, save and liberate us rather than a futile debate of historicity set by someone else's standards. We should not be concerned about this matter having absolute equal terms among some perceived equivalent....given our religions as systems of living are vastly different (I don't even really like to use the term Religion in the western/abrahamic construct for Hinduism in first place, they literally overall think we worship idols as defined by them after all).

Let me point out the flaw in your reasoning.

I think I have clarified my opinion on this matter hopefully. Anyway this is really a very long discussion to have on this topic.....we will have to stagger it.
 
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India’s Future in the World - Outstanding discussing between two intellectual giants of our time
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This is a truly insightful discussing between two giants of our time. These are people Ignored by the pop Media because their ideas and thoughts are original and unjaded.
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