DESERT FIGHTER
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The author perhaps a very limited sense of social sciences. His notion that Pakistan and India are of the same 'lot' is not entirely true and this goes through every sense of the word.
Ethnically, our diversity is much different from India. As an example India does not have the number of ethnic Pakthuns and Balochies that we have and taking Paksitan = Punjab + Sindh which has been historically been a part of South Asia is not correct.
Secondly, the demographics of developement in Pakistan were and still are very different: the number of urbanised people that Pakistan had was very low (with Lahore and Karachi being the only major cities in '47) where as India had about 15 or so major urban hubs and thus a vibrant 'middle class' that has been the true tipping point in the balance of power in social, economic and political terms. Pakistan's middle class rose in the late 70s and early 80s, thus, development in all terms would naturally be different.
Thirdly, the factors that both nations faced and the resources with which they could face it were again very different: Pakistan's founding party was voted completely out of power within the first decade of her inception. India enjoyed Congress leadership for a longer time. Pakistan's territory was divided, India had a united territory.
Lastly, Pakistan did not enjoy the fruits of British administrative hold which India did. Infrastructure wise, India got the better part of British legacy whereas Pakistan got the fringe regions which were underdeveloped for the most part and had to put in resources that it did not have in not just social/political development but also infrastructure.
So, the original premise is faulty.
And despite all those resources etc.. Pakistan has a much larger middle class of 75 million people ... 45% of the total population... also there are no sindhis in india aswell... maybe a few sindhi hindu refugees but no Sindh or its culture...